ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to parents of a circumcised newborn. To prevent diaper adherence to the penis, what will be recommended to apply during diaper changes?
- A. Baby oil
- B. Antibiotic ointment
- C. Petroleum jelly
- D. Alcohol wipes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Petroleum jelly is recommended to prevent the diaper from sticking to the circumcised area, reducing irritation and promoting healing. It should be applied during every diaper change until the site heals. Baby oil (Choice A) is not recommended as it may not provide a sufficient barrier to prevent adherence. Antibiotic ointment (Choice B) is not typically used for this purpose and can sometimes cause irritation. Alcohol wipes (Choice D) are too harsh for the sensitive skin of a newborn and can cause irritation.
2. A nurse is teaching a client about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening of colorectal cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. “Your provider will use stool samples from your bowel movement to perform the test.”
- B. “Your provider will prescribe a stimulant laxative prior to the procedure to cleanse the bowel.”
- C. “You should begin biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at 50 years old.”
- D. “You should avoid taking corticosteroids prior to testing.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid corticosteroids and vitamin C prior to testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect because stool samples from bowel movements, not from digital rectal examinations, are used for FOBT. Choice B is incorrect because a stimulant laxative is not typically prescribed before FOBT; rather, the client is instructed to follow specific dietary restrictions. Choice C is incorrect because biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening usually begins at 50 years old, not 40.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The nurse notes recurrent variable decelerations of the FHR. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Prepare the equipment necessary to initiate an amnioinfusion
- B. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via a non-rebreather face mask
- C. Discontinue the infusion of oxytocin
- D. Place the client in a left lateral position
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to discontinue the infusion of oxytocin. Oxytocin can lead to uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress, contributing to variable decelerations in fetal heart rate. By stopping the oxytocin infusion, the nurse can promptly assess and manage the fetal heart rate. Choice A, preparing for amnioinfusion, is not the priority when faced with recurrent variable decelerations. Choice B, administering oxygen, is important but addressing the oxytocin infusion issue takes precedence. Choice D, placing the client in a left lateral position, is beneficial for optimizing fetal oxygenation but discontinuing oxytocin is the initial step in managing variable decelerations.
4. A postpartum complication a client is at risk for is deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following factors is strongly associated with this postpartum complication?
- A. Cesarean birth
- B. Vaginal birth
- C. Anemia
- D. Multiparity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cesarean birth. Cesarean birth doubles the risk for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility and vascular changes associated with surgery. Other risk factors for DVT include smoking, obesity, and a history of thromboembolism. Vaginal birth, anemia, and multiparity are not strongly associated with an increased risk of deep-vein thrombosis postpartum. It is important to educate clients undergoing cesarean birth about the increased risk of DVT and measures to prevent it, such as early ambulation and the use of compression stockings.
5. A nurse in a mental health facility receives a change-of-shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. Client placed in restraints for aggressive behavior
- B. A new client with a history of a 4.5 kg weight loss in the past two months
- C. Client who received a PRN dose of haloperidol 2 hours ago for increased anxiety
- D. Client who will be receiving his first ECT treatment today
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A client in restraints due to aggressive behavior needs immediate assessment to ensure safety and well-being. The nurse should assess this client first to address any potential risks, such as circulation issues, skin integrity problems, and ongoing agitation. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate safety concerns that require urgent assessment compared to a client restrained for aggressive behavior.
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