Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment of a newborn following a vacuum-assisted delivery, which of the following findings should the healthcare provider be informed about?

• A. Poor sucking
• B. Blue discoloration of the hands and feet
• C. Soft, edematous area on the scalp
• D. Facial edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Poor sucking in a newborn following a vacuum-assisted delivery could indicate potential issues with feeding or neurological function, which need to be promptly addressed by the healthcare provider to ensure the well-being of the infant. It is essential for the healthcare provider to be informed about poor sucking to facilitate further evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with vacuum-assisted delivery and do not pose immediate concerns that require urgent attention.

2. A parent of a newborn is being taught about crib safety. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will place my baby on his stomach when he is sleeping.
• B. I should remove extra blankets from my baby's crib.
• C. I should pad the mattress in my baby's crib so that he will be more comfortable when he sleeps.
• D. I should place my baby's crib next to the heater to keep him warm during the winter.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Removing extra blankets from the crib is essential to prevent suffocation and reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Extra blankets can pose a suffocation hazard to the baby during sleep. It is recommended to keep the crib free from loose bedding, pillows, and other soft items to provide a safe sleep environment for the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Placing the baby on his stomach (Choice A) increases the risk of SIDS. Padding the mattress (Choice C) can also pose a suffocation risk, and placing the crib next to a heater (Choice D) can lead to overheating, which is associated with an increased risk of SIDS.

3. A client who is at 22 weeks of gestation reports concern about the blotchy hyperpigmentation on her forehead. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Tell the client to follow up with a dermatologist.
• B. Explain to the client this is an expected occurrence.
• C. Instruct the client to increase her intake of vitamin D.
• D. Inform the client she might have an allergy to her skin care products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is a blotchy, brown hyperpigmentation of the skin over the cheeks, nose, and forehead. It is most common in dark-skinned women and is caused by an increase in melanotropin during pregnancy. This condition typically appears after 16 weeks of gestation and gradually increases until delivery for 50 to 70% of women. The nurse should reassure the client that this is an expected occurrence, which usually fades after delivery. Therefore, explaining to the client that this is an expected occurrence is the appropriate action in this situation. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because chloasma is a common skin change during pregnancy and does not require a referral to a dermatologist, an increase in vitamin D intake, or suspicion of an allergy to skin care products.

4. A client is in labor, and a nurse observes late decelerations on the electronic fetal monitor. What should the nurse identify as the first action that the registered nurse should take?

• A. Assist the client into the left-lateral position
• B. Apply a fetal scalp electrode
• C. Insert an IV catheter
• D. Perform a vaginal exam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The initial action should be to assist the client into the left-lateral position to optimize maternal blood flow and oxygenation to the fetus, thereby improving uteroplacental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. This position helps reduce pressure on the vena cava, enhancing blood return to the heart and improving circulation to the placenta. Applying a fetal scalp electrode (Choice B) is not the first action indicated for late decelerations. Inserting an IV catheter (Choice C) and performing a vaginal exam (Choice D) are not primary interventions for addressing late decelerations related to uteroplacental insufficiency.

5. A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia has the following findings. Which of the following should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?

• A. 1+ pitting sacral edema
• B. 3+ protein in the urine
• C. Blood pressure 148/98 mm Hg
• D. Deep tendon reflexes of +1

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Deep tendon reflexes of +1 are inconsistent with preeclampsia. Preeclampsia typically presents with hyperreflexia, not diminished reflexes. Diminished reflexes may indicate other neurological conditions, thus making this finding inconsistent with preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and C are consistent with preeclampsia. Pitting sacral edema, protein in the urine, and elevated blood pressure are common findings in preeclampsia due to fluid retention, kidney involvement, and hypertension associated with the condition.

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