ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A male infant born at 30-weeks gestation at an outlying hospital is being prepared for transport to a Level IV neonatal facility. His respirations are 90/min, and his heart rate is 150 beats per minute. Which drug is the transport team most likely to administer to this infant?
- A. Ampicillin (Omnipen) 25 mg/kg slow IV push.
- B. Gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) 2.5 mg/kg IV.
- C. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 20 micrograms/kg IV.
- D. Beractant (Survanta) 100 mg/kg per endotracheal tube.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the infant is a preterm neonate with respiratory distress and is being transported to a Level IV neonatal facility. The drug most likely to be administered by the transport team is Beractant (Survanta) via endotracheal tube. Beractant is a surfactant used to treat respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants by improving lung compliance and reducing the need for mechanical ventilation.
2. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased heart rate.
- B. Decreased pedal edema.
- C. Elevated blood pressure.
- D. Improved urine output.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with heart failure, decreased pedal edema is a positive indicator of improved cardiac output and reduced fluid retention. Digoxin works by increasing the strength of the heart's contractions, leading to improved circulation and reduced symptoms of heart failure, such as edema. Monitoring for decreased pedal edema is essential to assess the effectiveness of digoxin therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because an increased heart rate, elevated blood pressure, and improved urine output are not specific indicators of digoxin's effectiveness in managing heart failure. Instead, the focus should be on improvements related to fluid retention and cardiac function, like decreased pedal edema.
3. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is experiencing severe shortness of breath and has pink, frothy sputum. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer morphine sulfate.
- B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
- C. Initiate continuous ECG monitoring.
- D. Prepare the client for intubation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing severe shortness of breath and pink, frothy sputum, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion, ease breathing, and enhance oxygenation by reducing venous return and decreasing preload on the heart. It is crucial to address the client's respiratory distress promptly before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice A) may be appropriate later to relieve anxiety and reduce the work of breathing, but positioning is the priority. Continuous ECG monitoring (choice C) and preparing for intubation (choice D) are important but secondary to addressing the respiratory distress and optimizing oxygenation.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 6 liters/minute if the client is short of breath.
- B. Instruct the client to breathe deeply and cough frequently.
- C. Use a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate.
- D. Encourage the client to remove the oxygen when eating or drinking.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Using a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate is the appropriate intervention for clients with COPD receiving oxygen therapy. High flow rates can lead to respiratory depression in COPD patients. This intervention helps maintain a safe and controlled oxygen delivery to prevent potential complications associated with high oxygen flow rates.
5. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?
- A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
- B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
- C. Prescribe celecoxib
- D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.
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