Nursing Elites

1. A 35-year-old male patient presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever for the past 48 hours, preceded by new onset jaundice over the past few weeks. He states that he has had diarrhea on and off for several years but never had this investigated. A liver ultrasound is negative for gallstones or evidence of cholecystitis. His lab tests reveal total bilirubin 6.2, alkaline phosphatase 450, AST 150, ALT 120, albumin 2.6. The next diagnostic test of choice would be

• A. Liver biopsy
• B. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
• C. Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis C RNA assay
• D. Colonoscopy with biopsies

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with abnormal liver function tests, suggests a biliary tract problem. Given the suspicion of obstructed bile flow and the negative liver ultrasound for gallstones, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is the next appropriate step to evaluate the biliary system and pancreatic ducts. MRCP is non-invasive and can provide detailed images for diagnosis. Liver biopsy is not the preferred initial diagnostic test in this context. Testing for hepatitis B and C would not address the current clinical scenario, and colonoscopy is not indicated for the presenting symptoms.

2. A client's health history is suggestive of inflammatory bowel disease. Which of the following would suggest Crohn disease, rather than ulcerative colitis, as the cause of the client's signs and symptoms?

• A. A pattern of distinct exacerbations and remissions
• B. Severe diarrhea
• C. An absence of blood in stool
• D. Involvement of the rectal mucosa

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of inflammatory bowel disease, the absence of blood in stool is more indicative of Crohn disease. Crohn disease typically presents with non-bloody stools, while ulcerative colitis often involves bloody stools due to continuous mucosal inflammation confined to the colon and rectum.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is most important to ensure client safety?

• A. Check the client's vital signs before starting the transfusion.
• B. Verify the client's identity and blood compatibility.
• C. Administer the blood with normal saline.
• D. Monitor the client for the first 15 minutes of the transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the client's identity and blood compatibility is the most critical step in ensuring client safety during a blood transfusion. This process helps prevent transfusion reactions by confirming that the correct blood product is being administered to the right patient.

4. What dietary advice should the nurse provide to help reduce the occurrence of hot flashes in a post-menopausal client?

• A. Increase intake of spicy foods.
• B. Limit caffeine and alcohol consumption.
• C. Consume a high-protein diet.
• D. Eat more dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting caffeine and alcohol consumption is recommended to help reduce the frequency of hot flashes in post-menopausal individuals. Caffeine and alcohol can trigger hot flashes and worsen their occurrence. Encouraging the client to reduce these stimulants in their diet may help alleviate hot flashes and improve their quality of life.

5. For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol?

• A. Relieve acute bronchospasm
• B. Prevent asthma attacks
• C. Suppress cough
• D. Thin respiratory secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Salmeterol is classified as a long-acting beta2-agonist, which is used to prevent asthma attacks by providing extended bronchodilation. It is not typically used for immediate relief of acute bronchospasm or for suppressing cough. Additionally, salmeterol does not have the primary purpose of thinning respiratory secretions.

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