Nursing Elites

1. A 46-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis is brought in by his wife because he has been acting strangely. On examination, he is disoriented, ataxic, and has slurred speech. He is also hyperreflexic. His white blood cell count is normal. His hematocrit is 34%. Coagulation times are elevated. His ammonia level is normal. Which of the following statements regarding his management is correct?

• A. He should be treated with a low-protein diet and lactulose
• B. Lorazepam is not the drug of choice to control his behavior
• C. He should not be placed on gentamicin prophylactically to prevent the development of peritonitis
• D. If the patient complains of pain, acetaminophen should be avoided and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents should be used

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms consistent with hepatic encephalopathy. Despite having a normal ammonia level, he should be treated with lactulose and a low-protein diet as recommended for stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. The normal ammonia level does not exclude the diagnosis, as it lacks sensitivity and specificity. Medications like lorazepam, gentamicin, and NSAIDs should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects in patients with liver disease. Acetaminophen should also be avoided in such patients.

2. A client with liver failure is at an increased risk of bleeding due to the inability to synthesize prothrombin in the liver. What factor most likely contributes to this loss of function?

• A. Alterations in glucose metabolism
• B. Retention of bile salts
• C. Inadequate production of albumin by hepatocytes
• D. Inability of the liver to use vitamin K

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The liver's inability to use vitamin K is the most likely factor contributing to the loss of prothrombin synthesis in liver failure. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of prothrombin, a crucial clotting factor. In liver failure, impaired utilization of vitamin K leads to decreased production of prothrombin, increasing the risk of bleeding in affected individuals.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO twice a day for a client with osteoarthritis. During a follow-up visit one month later, the client tells the nurse, 'The pills don't seem to be working. They are not helping the pain at all.' Which factor should influence the nurse's response?

• A. Noncompliance is probably affecting optimal medication effectiveness.
• B. Drug dosage is inadequate and needs to be increased to three times a day.
• C. The drug needs 4 to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream.
• D. NSAID response is variable, and trying another NSAID may be more effective.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Different NSAIDs work differently in individuals. If a patient is not experiencing relief with one NSAID, switching to a different one may provide better pain management. This variability in response is common among NSAIDs due to individual differences in drug metabolism and efficacy.

4. The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?

• A. Pain during coughing.
• B. Diminished cough effort.
• C. Thick, dry secretions.
• D. Excessive inflammation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience muscle weakness, including in the muscles used for coughing. This diminished cough effort can lead to ineffective airway clearance, increasing the risk of respiratory complications. Therefore, the most likely cause for the nursing diagnosis 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' in a client with myasthenia gravis is the diminished cough effort due to muscle weakness.

5. A client with a cold is taking the antitussive benzonatate (Tessalon). Which assessment data indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Reports reduced nasal discharge.
• B. Denies having coughing spells.
• C. Able to sleep through the night.
• D. Expectorating bronchial secretions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Denying having coughing spells indicates the effectiveness of benzonatate, an antitussive that suppresses coughing. The goal of antitussive medications like benzonatate is to reduce or eliminate coughing, so the absence of coughing spells signifies the drug's efficacy. The other options do not directly reflect the medication's intended effect and are not specific indicators of benzonatate's effectiveness.

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