Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure needs dietary instructions. Which of the following should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase calcium intake
• B. Provide a diet high in potassium
• C. Restrict protein intake
• D. Increase fluid intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to restrict protein intake. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products, so limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste in the body. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not typically necessary unless there is a specific deficiency. Providing a diet high in potassium (Choice B) is contraindicated as potassium levels need to be monitored and controlled in renal failure. Increasing fluid intake (Choice D) may be necessary depending on the individual's condition, but restricting protein intake is a more critical dietary instruction for clients with chronic renal failure.

2. A client presents with symptoms suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory tests should be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• B. Rheumatoid factor
• C. Antinuclear antibody
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rheumatoid factor is a specific marker for rheumatoid arthritis. It is often elevated in clients with this autoimmune condition, helping to confirm the diagnosis. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and antinuclear antibody tests can be supportive but are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis. Serum calcium levels are not typically used to confirm this diagnosis.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

4. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of levetiracetam. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

• A. It can cause weight loss
• B. Monitor for mood changes
• C. It is an over-the-counter medication
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Levetiracetam can cause mood changes and behavioral side effects, so clients should be monitored for these effects. Choice A is incorrect because levetiracetam is not typically associated with weight loss. Choice C is incorrect as levetiracetam is a prescription medication, not available over the counter. Choice D is incorrect as all medications, including levetiracetam, have potential side effects.

5. What is the nurse's next action after a laboring client's membranes have just ruptured?

• A. Assess fetal heart rate pattern
• B. Monitor uterine contractions
• C. Administer oxygen
• D. Prepare for delivery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a laboring client's membranes have ruptured, the nurse's immediate priority is to assess the fetal heart rate pattern. This assessment is crucial to ensure the fetus is not in distress, especially to rule out umbilical cord compression that could affect blood flow to the fetus. While monitoring uterine contractions is important, assessing the fetal heart rate takes precedence in this situation as it directly reflects the fetus's well-being. Administering oxygen may be necessary later depending on the fetal status, and preparing for delivery should only occur if the assessment indicates fetal distress or other complications. Therefore, the correct next action for the nurse is to assess the fetal heart rate pattern.

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