Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure needs dietary instructions. Which of the following should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase calcium intake
• B. Provide a diet high in potassium
• C. Restrict protein intake
• D. Increase fluid intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to restrict protein intake. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products, so limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste in the body. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not typically necessary unless there is a specific deficiency. Providing a diet high in potassium (Choice B) is contraindicated as potassium levels need to be monitored and controlled in renal failure. Increasing fluid intake (Choice D) may be necessary depending on the individual's condition, but restricting protein intake is a more critical dietary instruction for clients with chronic renal failure.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.

3. A nurse is performing a dressing change for a client who has a sacral wound using negative pressure wound therapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Apply skin preparation to wound edges
• B. Cleanse the wound with normal saline
• C. Don sterile gloves
• D. Determine the client's pain level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to determine the client's pain level first. Assessing the client's pain is crucial before proceeding with any procedure, including dressing changes. This step ensures that appropriate pain management measures can be implemented, making the wound care process as comfortable as possible for the patient. Applying skin preparation to wound edges (choice A) can come after addressing the pain. While cleansing the wound with normal saline (choice B) and donning sterile gloves (choice C) are important steps in wound care, they should follow the assessment of the client's pain level to prioritize the patient's comfort and well-being.

4. While caring for a client receiving nitroglycerin for chest pain, which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Nitroglycerin is known to cause hypotension due to its vasodilating effect, which can lead to low blood pressure. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, light-headedness, or weakness. Tachycardia (increased heart rate), bradycardia (decreased heart rate), and hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) are not typically associated with nitroglycerin use and are less likely to be side effects that the nurse needs to monitor for in this scenario.

5. A nurse is caring for a client in active labor who is receiving oxytocin. The nurse notes that the client is experiencing contractions every 1 minute lasting 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the oxytocin infusion
• B. Administer oxygen
• C. Increase the IV fluid rate
• D. Prepare for delivery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take in this situation is to stop the oxytocin infusion. Contractions occurring every 1 minute lasting 90 seconds indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress by compromising oxygen supply. Stopping the oxytocin infusion will help reduce the frequency and intensity of contractions, allowing for better fetal oxygenation. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary if there are signs of fetal distress, but stopping the oxytocin is the priority. Increasing IV fluid rate (Choice C) is not the appropriate action in response to hyperstimulation. While preparing for delivery (Choice D) may eventually be necessary, the immediate action should be to address the hyperstimulation by stopping the oxytocin infusion.

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