a nurse is reviewing a laboratory report for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia which of the following laboratory results s
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PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is reviewing a laboratory report for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A BUN of 35 mg/dL indicates potential kidney impairment, which is a concern in preeclampsia due to compromised renal function. This finding warrants further evaluation by the provider. High BUN levels may suggest reduced kidney function, a common complication associated with preeclampsia. Hgb, Bilirubin, and Hct levels are within normal ranges and are not directly indicative of kidney impairment or preeclampsia in this scenario. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated BUN level to the healthcare provider for prompt management and monitoring.

2. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apical pulse. Digoxin's primary effect is to strengthen the force of the heart's contractions and slow the heart rate. Monitoring the apical pulse is crucial in evaluating the effectiveness of digoxin as it helps assess the medication's impact on the heart's function. Option A, respiratory rate, is not directly related to digoxin's mechanism of action and is not the most appropriate parameter to monitor for this medication. Option B, blood pressure, while important, may not be as sensitive as the apical pulse in assessing the effectiveness of digoxin. Option D, urine output, is more indicative of kidney function and fluid balance, rather than the direct effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure.

3. A client who signed an informed consent form for surgery but has since expressed doubts about the need for surgery is being assisted by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse should encourage the client to express concerns and ensure that the surgeon addresses any questions prior to the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's worries. Choice C is incorrect because it does not respect the client's autonomy in decision-making. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's doubts directly or provide reassurance.

4. A client is in active labor and is receiving an epidural for pain relief. Which of the following should the nurse monitor as the priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most common side effect of an epidural is hypotension, which can compromise placental perfusion. Monitoring the client's blood pressure is the priority to ensure maternal and fetal well-being. Fetal heart rate is important but monitoring the client's blood pressure takes precedence due to the risk of hypotension. Respiratory rate and pain level monitoring are also important but not the priority in this scenario.

5. A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.

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