a nurse is reviewing a laboratory report for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia which of the following laboratory results s
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PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is reviewing a laboratory report for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A BUN of 35 mg/dL indicates potential kidney impairment, which is a concern in preeclampsia due to compromised renal function. This finding warrants further evaluation by the provider. High BUN levels may suggest reduced kidney function, a common complication associated with preeclampsia. Hgb, Bilirubin, and Hct levels are within normal ranges and are not directly indicative of kidney impairment or preeclampsia in this scenario. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated BUN level to the healthcare provider for prompt management and monitoring.

2. A client is preparing advance directives. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advance directives?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I have the right to refuse treatment.' This statement indicates an understanding of advance directives because advance directives allow individuals to express their treatment preferences, including the right to refuse treatment if they choose to do so. Choice A is incorrect because individuals can update or change their advance directives as needed. Choice B is incorrect because advance directives are based on the individual's preferences, not the doctor's approval. Choice C is incorrect as witnessing an advance directive typically requires a witness who is not an attorney, depending on the state's specific requirements.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because shortness of breath is an indication of transplant rejection, along with other manifestations like fatigue, edema, bradycardia, and hypotension. Choice A is incorrect because immunosuppressant medications are usually taken for life to prevent rejection. Choice C is incorrect as the surgical site may take longer to heal fully. Choice D is incorrect as the initiation of exercise post-heart transplant should be gradual and individualized based on the client's condition.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not being adequately perfused, leading to reduced urine production. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia, not directly related to cardiac output. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) can be caused by medications or sympathetic nervous system stimulation but are not specific to decreased cardiac output.

5. A charge nurse is discussing the use of applying ice to a client’s injured knee with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following is a benefit of this treatment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased capillary permeability. Ice application helps decrease capillary permeability, which in turn reduces swelling and inflammation at the injury site. This vasoconstriction effect helps to limit the extent of the injury. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Applying ice locally does not produce a systemic analgesic effect but rather a localized numbing effect. It does not increase metabolism but rather slows down metabolic processes in the affected area. Additionally, ice application causes vasoconstriction, not vasodilation.

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