Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of alendronate. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

• A. Take it with food
• B. Sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking it
• C. It can be taken at bedtime
• D. It is safe to take with antacids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking it.' Alendronate can cause esophageal irritation and to reduce the risk of this side effect, clients should be instructed to sit upright for at least 30 minutes after administration. Choice A is incorrect as alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, usually in the morning, at least 30 minutes before the first food, beverage, or medication of the day. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken at bedtime, as the client should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking it. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of alendronate, so they should not be taken together.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV diltiazem for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Decreased level of consciousness
• D. History of diuretic use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem can cause further lowering of blood pressure, so it should not be administered if the client is already hypotensive. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial before giving diltiazem. Choice B, tachycardia, is not a contraindication for diltiazem use; in fact, diltiazem is used to slow down the heart rate. Choice C, decreased level of consciousness, may indicate other issues but is not a direct contraindication for diltiazem. Choice D, history of diuretic use, is not a contraindication by itself; however, caution should be exercised when diltiazem is given with diuretics due to potential interactions.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following statements should the nurse plan to make?

• A. You will not receive medication through an IV for this test.
• B. You should expect the test to take about 30 minutes.
• C. You do not need to eat or drink for 4 hours prior to the test.
• D. This test will help determine if your baby's lungs are mature.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make is choice B, 'You should expect the test to take about 30 minutes.' The nonstress test is used to assess fetal well-being by monitoring fetal heart rate in response to movements. Choice A is incorrect because medications are not typically administered during a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need for the client to fast before the test. Choice D is incorrect because determining fetal lung maturity is usually done through other tests, not the nonstress test.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?

• A. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min
• B. BUN 16 mg/dL
• C. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
• D. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 14 mL/min indicates severely impaired kidney function, often necessitating hemodialysis to support renal function and manage fluid and electrolyte balance. A BUN level of 16 mg/dL falls within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not specifically indicate the need for hemodialysis. Serum magnesium at 1.8 mg/dL and serum phosphorus at 4.0 mg/dL are also within normal ranges and do not typically prompt the immediate need for hemodialysis in chronic kidney disease.

5. A nurse is planning care for four clients. Which client is the highest priority?

• A. Client with dry, black eschar on the heel
• B. Client wearing an arm cast and reporting numb fingers
• C. Client with reddened skin around the coccyx
• D. Client with frequent incontinence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because numb fingers indicate neurovascular compromise, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. The priority in this situation is to assess and address any circulation issues affecting the extremity. Choices A, C, and D are of concern but not as immediate as neurovascular compromise, which requires urgent attention to prevent further complications.

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