a nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has evidence of dyspnea bibasilar crackles and frothy sputum what dietary recommendations should
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A client with heart failure who presents with dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum should receive which dietary recommendation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to reduce sodium intake. In heart failure, excess sodium can lead to fluid retention, exacerbating symptoms like dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum. Therefore, reducing sodium intake is crucial in managing heart failure. Decreasing protein intake is not typically recommended in heart failure management. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by further contributing to fluid overload. Decreasing calcium intake is not directly related to managing heart failure symptoms such as dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum.

2. When educating a patient on the use of levodopa-carbidopa, which information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for dyskinesia.' Levodopa-carbidopa can cause dyskinesia as a side effect, which is characterized by involuntary muscle movements. Patients need to be monitored for this adverse effect and instructed to report it to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because levodopa-carbidopa is not a cure for Parkinson's disease, it should be taken at specific times for optimal effect, and it does have side effects, such as dyskinesia.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding and liver function tests due to potential liver effects. Monitoring liver function tests is essential to detect any adverse effects on the liver because clopidogrel can cause hepatotoxicity. While monitoring blood pressure, potassium levels, and respiratory rate are important in general patient care, they are not the priority assessments specifically related to clopidogrel use.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client in active labor. The nurse notes variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to reposition the client. Variable decelerations are often caused by umbilical cord compression. Repositioning the client can help alleviate pressure on the cord and improve fetal oxygenation. Administering oxygen may be necessary in some situations, but repositioning the client takes precedence to address the underlying cause of variable decelerations. While preparing for delivery is important, addressing the immediate concern of variable decelerations by repositioning the client is the priority. Increasing IV fluids is not the priority in this situation as it does not directly address the cause of variable decelerations.

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