ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A client with heart failure who presents with dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum should receive which dietary recommendation?
- A. Decrease protein intake.
- B. Reduce sodium intake.
- C. Increase fluid intake.
- D. Decrease calcium intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to reduce sodium intake. In heart failure, excess sodium can lead to fluid retention, exacerbating symptoms like dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum. Therefore, reducing sodium intake is crucial in managing heart failure. Decreasing protein intake is not typically recommended in heart failure management. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by further contributing to fluid overload. Decreasing calcium intake is not directly related to managing heart failure symptoms such as dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum.
2. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of fluoxetine. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It can take several weeks for effects to be noticed
- B. It is an antipsychotic medication
- C. It should be taken at night
- D. It has no side effects
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When educating a client about fluoxetine, it is essential to mention that it can take several weeks for the therapeutic effects to be noticed. This is because fluoxetine is an SSRI that requires time to build up in the body and start producing its intended effects. Choice B is incorrect as fluoxetine is not an antipsychotic medication but an SSRI. Choice C is inaccurate because fluoxetine can be taken at any time of the day, and there is no specific requirement to take it at night. Choice D is incorrect as all medications, including fluoxetine, have potential side effects that should be discussed with the client.
3. A nurse is assisting with meal planning for a client who has been prescribed a mechanical soft diet. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods?
- A. Applesauce
- B. Mashed potatoes
- C. Orange slices
- D. Soft bread
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Orange slices. Orange slices contain membranes that are difficult to swallow, which can pose a risk to clients on a mechanical soft diet. This type of diet is designed for individuals who have difficulty chewing or swallowing. Choices A, B, and D are suitable for a mechanical soft diet as they are soft in texture and easy to chew and swallow.
4. A nurse is teaching about measures to promote sleep for a client with insomnia. What statement indicates understanding?
- A. I should reduce my fluid intake to 2 hours before bedtime
- B. I will watch TV in bed before sleeping
- C. I can take long naps during the day
- D. I should exercise right before going to bed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Reducing fluid intake to 2-4 hours before sleeping helps prevent interruptions during the night, promoting better sleep. Watching TV in bed before sleeping (choice B) can actually hinder sleep due to the stimulation from screens. Taking long naps during the day (choice C) can disrupt the natural sleep-wake cycle. Exercising right before going to bed (choice D) can increase alertness and make it harder to fall asleep.
5. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Hypertension
- C. Pruritus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.
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