ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A client with heart failure who presents with dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum should receive which dietary recommendation?
- A. Decrease protein intake.
- B. Reduce sodium intake.
- C. Increase fluid intake.
- D. Decrease calcium intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to reduce sodium intake. In heart failure, excess sodium can lead to fluid retention, exacerbating symptoms like dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum. Therefore, reducing sodium intake is crucial in managing heart failure. Decreasing protein intake is not typically recommended in heart failure management. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by further contributing to fluid overload. Decreasing calcium intake is not directly related to managing heart failure symptoms such as dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 250 mg of an antibiotic IM. Available is 3 g/5 mL. How many mL would the healthcare professional administer per dose?
- A. 0.4 mL
- B. 0.3 mL
- C. 0.5 mL
- D. 0.6 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the mL to be administered, convert 250 mg to grams (0.25 g). Then, set up a proportion: (0.25 g / 3 g) x 5 mL = 0.4167 mL, which rounds to 0.4 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional would administer 0.4 mL per dose. Choice B (0.3 mL) is incorrect because it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice C (0.5 mL) is incorrect as it does not consider the correct conversion and calculation. Choice D (0.6 mL) is incorrect as it provides a value higher than the accurate calculation.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Increased energy levels
- B. Pale skin
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pale skin is a common sign of anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. This results in skin pallor. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Anemia typically causes fatigue and decreased energy levels (not increased), low blood pressure (not elevated), and tachycardia (increased heart rate) to compensate for the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about managing their condition. Which of the following statements shows an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will need to take an iron supplement.
- B. I will consume foods high in phosphorus.
- C. I will reduce my intake of carbohydrates.
- D. I will monitor my blood glucose level daily.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production, leading to decreased red blood cell production. Iron supplementation is frequently required to enhance red blood cell production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in chronic kidney disease, there is a need to restrict phosphorus intake, control carbohydrate intake for blood sugar management, and monitor electrolytes and fluid balance rather than blood glucose levels.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes who is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform first?
- A. Administer insulin
- B. Give the client a carbohydrate snack
- C. Call for assistance
- D. Monitor blood glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to give the client a carbohydrate snack. When a client is experiencing hypoglycemia, the priority intervention is to raise their blood glucose levels quickly. Administering insulin (Choice A) would further lower the blood glucose levels and is contra-indicated in this situation. Calling for assistance (Choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority over addressing the low blood sugar. Monitoring blood glucose (Choice D) is important but not the initial action needed to raise blood glucose levels rapidly.
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