a nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has evidence of dyspnea bibasilar crackles and frothy sputum what dietary recommendations should
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A client with heart failure who presents with dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum should receive which dietary recommendation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to reduce sodium intake. In heart failure, excess sodium can lead to fluid retention, exacerbating symptoms like dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum. Therefore, reducing sodium intake is crucial in managing heart failure. Decreasing protein intake is not typically recommended in heart failure management. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by further contributing to fluid overload. Decreasing calcium intake is not directly related to managing heart failure symptoms such as dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Gentamicin is known to cause nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect. Proteinuria, which is the presence of excess proteins in the urine, may indicate kidney damage from the medication. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients receiving gentamicin. Choice A, hypoglycemia, is not a typical adverse effect of gentamicin. Choices C and D, nasal congestion and visual disturbances, are not commonly associated with gentamicin use or its adverse effects.

4. A nurse is obtaining the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for isosorbide mononitrate. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a contraindication to this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isosorbide mononitrate is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma due to its potential to increase intraocular pressure, which can exacerbate the condition. Hypertension, polycythemia, and migraine headaches are not contraindications for isosorbide mononitrate. In fact, isosorbide mononitrate is commonly used in the management of hypertension and certain types of angina.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with schizophrenia, poor problem-solving ability is a common assessment finding due to impaired cognitive function associated with the disorder. This impairment can manifest as difficulties in decision-making and problem-solving. Choice A, decreased level of consciousness, is not a typical finding in schizophrenia. Choice B, inability to identify common objects, is more indicative of conditions like dementia rather than schizophrenia. Choice D, preoccupation with somatic disturbances, is more characteristic of somatic symptom disorder rather than schizophrenia.

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