Nursing Elites

1. A client's serum calcium level is 7.9 mg/dL. The nurse is immediately concerned, knowing that this level could lead to which complication?

• A. Stroke
• B. Cardiac arrest
• C. High blood pressure
• D. Urinary stone formation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum calcium level below normal (hypocalcemia) can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and potentially cardiac arrest. Calcium plays a crucial role in cardiac muscle contractility, and low levels can disrupt normal heart function, potentially leading to fatal arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as hypocalcemia is not directly associated with stroke, high blood pressure, or urinary stone formation. The immediate concern with low serum calcium levels is the risk of cardiac complications.

2. The client has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or bleeding complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) and fibrinogen levels (Choice D) do not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in the same way that PT and INR do.

3. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge after a myocardial infarction (MI). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?

• A. Avoid engaging in sexual activity for at least 6 weeks.
• B. Engage in moderate physical activity daily.
• C. Take prescribed medications even if you feel well.
• D. Return to work only when medically cleared.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical instruction for a client after a myocardial infarction is to continue taking prescribed medications even if they feel well. This is essential in preventing another myocardial infarction or other complications. Discontinuing medications prematurely can be detrimental to the client's recovery and may increase the risk of further cardiovascular events. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because engaging in sexual activity, physical activity, or returning to work are important aspects of the client's recovery, but not as crucial as ensuring medication compliance to prevent further cardiac issues.

4. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) has been placed on bed rest. The LPN/LVN should reinforce which instruction to the client to prevent complications?

• A. Perform ankle pumps and circles every 1 to 2 hours.
• B. Use a heating pad to relieve pain in the affected leg.
• C. Keep the affected leg flat and avoid elevation.
• D. Wear tight compression stockings to prevent swelling.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing ankle pumps and circles every 1 to 2 hours is crucial for a client with DVT on bed rest. These exercises promote venous return, preventing stasis and reducing the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. Ankle pumps help activate the calf muscle pump, assisting in propelling blood back to the heart and preventing blood clots from forming or worsening. Choice B is incorrect because using a heating pad can increase blood flow to the area, potentially dislodging a clot. Choice C is incorrect because elevation helps reduce swelling and improve venous return. Choice D is incorrect because although compression stockings can be beneficial, they are not the most important instruction for preventing complications in this scenario.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, which increases the risk of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can have serious implications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential to closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels while on furosemide to prevent complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is incorrect because furosemide leads to potassium loss, not retention. Hypernatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.

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