Nursing Elites

1. A client's serum calcium level is 7.9 mg/dL. The nurse is immediately concerned, knowing that this level could lead to which complication?

• A. Stroke
• B. Cardiac arrest
• C. High blood pressure
• D. Urinary stone formation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum calcium level below normal (hypocalcemia) can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and potentially cardiac arrest. Calcium plays a crucial role in cardiac muscle contractility, and low levels can disrupt normal heart function, potentially leading to fatal arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as hypocalcemia is not directly associated with stroke, high blood pressure, or urinary stone formation. The immediate concern with low serum calcium levels is the risk of cardiac complications.

2. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with chronic stable angina. Which symptom would indicate that the client's condition is worsening?

• A. Increased shortness of breath with exertion
• B. Improved tolerance to activity
• C. Decreased frequency of chest pain
• D. Stable blood pressure readings

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased shortness of breath with exertion is a concerning symptom in a client with chronic stable angina as it may indicate inadequate oxygen supply to the heart muscle, suggesting a worsening condition. This could be a sign of reduced blood flow to the heart, leading to increased work for the heart during exertion, resulting in increased shortness of breath. Choice B, improved tolerance to activity, is incorrect as it would indicate a positive response to treatment. Choice C, decreased frequency of chest pain, is incorrect as it would also suggest an improvement in the client's condition. Choice D, stable blood pressure readings, are not indicative of a worsening condition in chronic stable angina.

3. The nurse is assisting with the care of a client diagnosed with heart failure. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days
• B. Increased urination at night
• C. Mild shortness of breath on exertion
• D. Decreased appetite and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days is concerning in a client with heart failure as it can indicate fluid retention and worsening of the condition. This finding requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications. Increased urination at night (choice B) may be due to various reasons like diuretic use and is not an immediate concern. Mild shortness of breath on exertion (choice C) is expected in clients with heart failure and may not require immediate reporting. Decreased appetite and fatigue (choice D) are common symptoms in heart failure but are not as urgent as sudden weight gain.

4. A client has a new prescription for sertraline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication at bedtime.
• B. I may experience sexual dysfunction.
• C. I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• D. I may experience weight loss while taking this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of sertraline. When the client mentions this potential side effect, it indicates an understanding of the teaching about the medication's effects. This response shows awareness of a significant adverse effect that the client should be informed about when starting sertraline. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking sertraline at bedtime, avoiding grapefruit juice, or experiencing weight loss are not key teaching points associated with this medication.

5. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

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