ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Assessment A
1. After a client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed aspirin, which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Take the aspirin with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset
- B. Discontinue the aspirin if you experience ringing in your ears
- C. Take the aspirin at bedtime to minimize side effects
- D. Avoid taking aspirin if you are also taking other NSAIDs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction is to take aspirin with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset. Aspirin can irritate the stomach lining, leading to potential gastrointestinal issues. Taking it with food helps reduce this risk by providing a protective layer in the stomach. This is a common recommendation to minimize the risk of gastrointestinal side effects when taking aspirin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not a typical reason to discontinue aspirin, as ringing in the ears is not a common side effect of aspirin. Choice C does not have a direct correlation to minimizing side effects of aspirin. Choice D is inaccurate because while caution should be exercised when taking aspirin with other NSAIDs due to the increased risk of bleeding, it does not mean aspirin should be entirely avoided if other NSAIDs are being taken.
2. While preparing a client for a cardiac catheterization, the client expresses a preference to speak with their doctor rather than the nurse. Which response by the nurse should be therapeutic?
- A. Your doctor expects me to prepare you for this procedure.
- B. That's fine, if that's what you want. I'll call your health care provider.
- C. So you're saying that you want to talk to your health care provider?
- D. I'm concerned with the way you've dismissed me. I know what I am doing.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The therapeutic response by the nurse in this situation involves reflecting the client's feelings back to them, which demonstrates active listening and empathy. By restating the client's preference to talk to their doctor, the nurse acknowledges and validates the client's feelings, thereby fostering a positive therapeutic relationship and promoting open communication. Choices A and B do not acknowledge the client's preference and may come off as dismissive. Choice D is confrontational and defensive, which can lead to a breakdown in communication and trust between the nurse and the client.
3. A client is taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Tremors
- D. Tardive dyskinesia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect associated with the long-term use of haloperidol. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. Early detection is crucial as tardive dyskinesia may be irreversible and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and tremors are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as concerning as tardive dyskinesia. While they should still be monitored and managed, tardive dyskinesia requires immediate attention due to its potentially irreversible nature.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?
- A. Administer the medication via IM bolus over 5 minutes.
- B. Reconstitute with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- C. Discard the reconstituted medication if it is cloudy.
- D. Administer the medication in a large muscle.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.
5. A client with a new prescription for simvastatin is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. 'I should take this medication in the evening.'
- B. 'I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.'
- C. 'I should expect my urine to be red-orange while taking this medication.'
- D. 'I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking simvastatin in the evening is recommended because cholesterol synthesis increases at night. This timing maximizes the effectiveness of the medication in lowering cholesterol levels. Choice B is incorrect because grapefruit juice should be avoided with certain statins, but simvastatin is not significantly affected by grapefruit juice. Choice C is incorrect as red-orange urine is not an expected side effect of simvastatin. Choice D is incorrect because simvastatin is typically prescribed for managing cholesterol levels and may not need to be taken for the rest of the client's life.
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