ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Assessment A
1. After a client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed aspirin, which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Take the aspirin with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset
- B. Discontinue the aspirin if you experience ringing in your ears
- C. Take the aspirin at bedtime to minimize side effects
- D. Avoid taking aspirin if you are also taking other NSAIDs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction is to take aspirin with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset. Aspirin can irritate the stomach lining, leading to potential gastrointestinal issues. Taking it with food helps reduce this risk by providing a protective layer in the stomach. This is a common recommendation to minimize the risk of gastrointestinal side effects when taking aspirin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not a typical reason to discontinue aspirin, as ringing in the ears is not a common side effect of aspirin. Choice C does not have a direct correlation to minimizing side effects of aspirin. Choice D is inaccurate because while caution should be exercised when taking aspirin with other NSAIDs due to the increased risk of bleeding, it does not mean aspirin should be entirely avoided if other NSAIDs are being taken.
2. The client is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which lab test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Fibrinogen levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate lab test to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, a different anticoagulant that affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Fibrinogen levels are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.
3. A client admitted with coronary artery disease (CAD) reports dyspnea at rest. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Providing a walker to aid in ambulation
- B. Elevating the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees
- C. Performing continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation
- D. Placing an oxygen cannula at the bedside for use if needed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing dyspnea at rest, the priority intervention should be to elevate the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the work of breathing, optimizes lung expansion, and can alleviate symptoms of dyspnea by improving oxygenation and ventilation. Providing a walker for ambulation, monitoring oxygen saturation, and having an oxygen cannula at the bedside are important interventions but not the priority when the client is experiencing dyspnea at rest. Elevating the head of the bed is crucial to improve respiratory function and should be prioritized in this situation.
4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hypertension who is receiving a beta blocker. The provider should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Beta blockers are medications that can cause bradycardia by slowing down the heart rate. It is essential to monitor for this side effect in clients receiving beta blockers, as it can lead to serious complications such as decreased cardiac output and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because beta blockers are not expected to cause tachycardia (fast heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), or hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels).
5. The healthcare provider is preparing to assist in the care of a client who has just returned from coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which is the priority action?
- A. Monitor the client's urine output.
- B. Check the client's surgical dressing.
- C. Measure the client's blood pressure.
- D. Assess the client's level of consciousness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assessing the client's level of consciousness is the priority action post-CABG surgery to monitor for signs of cerebral hypoxia or other complications that require immediate intervention. Changes in the client's level of consciousness can indicate neurological deterioration, which is critical to address promptly in this postoperative period. Monitoring urine output, checking surgical dressing, and measuring blood pressure are important aspects of postoperative care but assessing the client's level of consciousness takes precedence as it provides crucial information about the client's neurological status and the need for urgent intervention.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access