the nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation who is receiving warfarin coumadin which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determi
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ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions

1. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

2. A client with coronary artery disease is prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. The nurse should reinforce which dietary selection made by the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oatmeal with fresh fruit is a suitable choice for a client with coronary artery disease prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. This option is high in fiber and nutrients, making it a heart-healthy selection. Oatmeal and fresh fruits are low in cholesterol and saturated fats, which helps in managing coronary artery disease. Choices A, C, and D are higher in cholesterol and saturated fats, which can be detrimental for individuals with this condition.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking phenytoin for epilepsy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to oral health issues and requires dental care. Choices A, C, and D are not directly associated with phenytoin use. Weight loss, increased thirst, and frequent urination are not typically reported findings related to phenytoin and should not be prioritized over gingival hyperplasia when assessing a client taking this medication.

4. A client has a new prescription for prednisone. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You may experience weight gain.' Prednisone commonly causes weight gain as a side effect, so it is important for the client to be aware of this potential outcome. Monitoring weight changes can be essential in managing the medication's effects and overall health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing vitamin K intake is not specifically related to prednisone use. Expecting increased urinary output is not a common side effect of prednisone. Dark, tarry stools are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal bleeding rather than prednisone use.

5. Which statement indicates that a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) understands disease management?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because regular physical activity, such as walking for half an hour daily, is beneficial for managing coronary artery disease (CAD) and promoting heart health. Walking helps improve circulation, reduce cholesterol levels, and maintain a healthy weight, all of which are crucial for managing CAD. Choice B is incorrect because diet also plays a significant role in CAD management, not just exercise. Choice C is incorrect because weight management is essential in controlling CAD risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because family history of high cholesterol can increase the risk of CAD, making it relevant for disease management.

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