ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing joint pain and stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help relieve the client's symptoms?
- A. Apply cold packs to the affected joints.
- B. Encourage passive range-of-motion exercises.
- C. Administer a muscle relaxant.
- D. Provide a high-calorie diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging passive range-of-motion exercises is the most appropriate intervention to help relieve symptoms of joint pain and stiffness in clients with severe rheumatoid arthritis. These exercises help maintain joint mobility, prevent muscle contractures, and reduce stiffness in the affected joints. Passive range-of-motion exercises can also improve circulation to the joints, promoting healing and reducing pain. Applying cold packs may help with inflammation and pain temporarily, but it does not address the long-term joint mobility issues associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Muscle relaxants are not typically indicated for managing joint pain and stiffness in rheumatoid arthritis. While nutrition is important for overall health, providing a high-calorie diet is not a direct intervention for relieving joint pain and stiffness in this context.
2. When assessing a client with a chest tube connected to suction, which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
- C. No fluctuation in the water seal chamber.
- D. Steady bubbling in the suction control chamber.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Steady bubbling in the suction control chamber is the correct observation that indicates the chest tube is functioning properly. This steady bubbling signifies that the suction is actively maintaining the desired pressure level within the system, ensuring proper drainage and lung re-expansion. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber, intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber, or no fluctuation in the water seal chamber are not indicative of optimal chest tube function and may require further assessment or intervention.
3. A 70-year-old man presents with weight loss, jaundice, and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Gallstones
- B. Hepatitis
- C. Pancreatic cancer
- D. Primary biliary cirrhosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The presentation of a 70-year-old man with weight loss, jaundice, a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels is highly suggestive of pancreatic cancer. This clinical scenario, known as Courvoisier's sign, points towards a pancreatic malignancy due to biliary obstruction. Gallstones could cause similar symptoms but would typically not present with a palpable mass. Hepatitis usually does not present with a palpable mass and would have different laboratory findings. Primary biliary cirrhosis typically presents differently with chronic cholestasis without the presence of a palpable mass or a pancreatic lesion.
4. A patient with severe anemia is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Stimulate white blood cell production
- B. Increase platelet count
- C. Promote red blood cell production
- D. Enhance clotting factor production
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Erythropoietin is a hormone that primarily stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells. By increasing red blood cell production, erythropoietin helps to improve oxygen delivery to tissues, which is essential in managing anemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin specifically targets red blood cell production and does not have a direct effect on white blood cells, platelets, or clotting factors.
5. The client is receiving intravenous (IV) morphine for pain control. Which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention?
- A. Drowsiness.
- B. Itching.
- C. Nausea.
- D. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute indicates severe respiratory depression, a life-threatening side effect of opioid therapy. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring and managing respiratory status are critical in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Drowsiness, itching, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not as immediately life-threatening as severe respiratory depression.
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