Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with a chest tube connected to suction, which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• C. No fluctuation in the water seal chamber.
• D. Steady bubbling in the suction control chamber.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Steady bubbling in the suction control chamber is the correct observation that indicates the chest tube is functioning properly. This steady bubbling signifies that the suction is actively maintaining the desired pressure level within the system, ensuring proper drainage and lung re-expansion. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber, intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber, or no fluctuation in the water seal chamber are not indicative of optimal chest tube function and may require further assessment or intervention.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril (Prinivil). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Dry cough.
• B. Weight gain.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Hyperglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to irritation and subsequent cough. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can affect adherence to the medication regimen. Weight gain, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

3. A patient with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?

• A. With meals
• B. At bedtime
• C. Before meals
• D. After meals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Omeprazole should be taken before meals to reduce stomach acid production and promote healing of the ulcer. Taking it before meals ensures that the medication can inhibit acid secretion when the stomach is most active in producing acid, thereby maximizing its effectiveness in treating peptic ulcer disease.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. No bruit or thrill over the AV fistula.
• B. Redness at the site of the AV fistula.
• C. Client's complaint of pain at the AV fistula site.
• D. Swelling of the hand on the side of the AV fistula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a chronic kidney disease who has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis, the absence of a bruit (a humming sound) or thrill (vibratory sensation) over the AV fistula indicates a potential occlusion. This finding suggests inadequate blood flow through the AV fistula, which is a critical issue requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as thrombosis or clot formation. Reporting this absence of bruit or thrill promptly to the healthcare provider is essential to ensure timely assessment and management to maintain vascular access for hemodialysis.

5. When a client reports being allergic to penicillin, which question should the nurse ask to gather more information?

• A. Are you allergic to any other medications?
• B. How often have you taken penicillin in the past?
• C. Is anyone else in your family allergic to penicillin?
• D. What happens to you when you take penicillin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Questioning the client about the specific allergic reaction to penicillin is crucial for assessing the severity and type of allergic response, aiding in determining appropriate treatment and avoiding potential adverse reactions.

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