ATI LPN
ATI Adult Medical Surgical
1. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is taking prednisone. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hyperglycemia. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to elevated blood sugar levels as a side effect, particularly in patients with diabetes or those predisposed to developing diabetes. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial to prevent complications like diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome.
2. A client is receiving chemotherapy and is at risk for neutropenia. Which precaution should the nurse implement?
- A. Encourage regular visitors to boost morale.
- B. Ensure the client receives live vaccines.
- C. Place the client in a private room.
- D. Provide a diet high in fresh fruits and vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placing the client in a private room is crucial to protect them from infections due to their compromised immune system. Neutropenia, a common side effect of chemotherapy, decreases white blood cell count, making the client more susceptible to infections. By placing the client in a private room, exposure to pathogens from other individuals is minimized, reducing the risk of infection and helping maintain the client's health during this vulnerable period.
3. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L. What intervention can the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?
- A. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) orally.
- B. Erythropoietin (Epogen) intravenously.
- C. Kayexalate retention enema.
- D. Azathioprine (Imuran) orally.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute renal failure with high serum potassium levels, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe a Kayexalate retention enema. Kayexalate is a medication used to lower elevated potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion through the gastrointestinal tract, thus aiding in the management of hyperkalemia in clients with renal failure.
4. A 55-year-old man presents with jaundice, pruritus, and dark urine. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of jaundice, pruritus, dark urine, elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase, along with imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are characteristic of primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary biliary cirrhosis is an autoimmune liver disease that leads to destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts, causing cholestasis and liver damage. This condition typically presents in middle-aged women but can also affect men, as seen in this case.
5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication before bedtime.
- B. Report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day.
- C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- D. Limit your fluid intake to less than 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In heart failure, fluid retention is a concern. Furosemide helps manage this by promoting diuresis. Instructing the client to report weight gain exceeding 2 pounds in a day is crucial as it can indicate fluid accumulation, prompting timely intervention to prevent worsening heart failure symptoms and complications.
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