HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. After a client with peripheral vascular disease undergoes a right femoral-popliteal bypass graft, their blood pressure drops from 124/80 to 94/62. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. IV fluid infusion.
- B. Pedal pulses.
- C. Nasal cannula oxygen flow rate.
- D. Capillary refill time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing pedal pulses is crucial in this situation as it helps determine the adequacy of perfusion to the lower extremity following a bypass graft. A decrease in blood pressure postoperatively could indicate decreased perfusion, making the assessment of pedal pulses a priority to ensure proper circulation. Checking IV fluid infusion, nasal cannula oxygen flow rate, or capillary refill time are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not provide direct information about perfusion to the affected extremity.
2. A client has a serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L, a serum creatinine level of 2 mg/dL, and a urine output of 350 mL/day. What is the best action by the nurse?
- A. Place the client on a cardiac monitor immediately.
- B. Teach the client to limit high-potassium foods.
- C. Continue to monitor the client’s intake and output.
- D. Ask to have the laboratory redraw the blood specimen.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best immediate action by the nurse in this situation is to place the client on a cardiac monitor immediately. A serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening dysrhythmias. Monitoring the cardiac status is crucial to detect any potential arrhythmias promptly. Teaching the client to limit high-potassium foods (Choice B) may be important for long-term management, but it is not the priority at this moment. Continuing to monitor intake and output (Choice C) is important for assessing renal function but does not address the immediate risk of dysrhythmias. Asking to have the laboratory redraw the blood specimen (Choice D) is unnecessary since the current results indicate a critical situation that requires immediate action.
3. After a urography, a client is instructed by a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client’s discharge teaching?
- A. Avoid direct contact with your urine for 24 hours until the dye clears.
- B. You may experience dribbling of urine for several weeks post-procedure.
- C. Drink at least 3 liters of fluids today to assist in dye elimination.
- D. Your skin may turn slightly yellow from the dye used in this procedure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: It is important for the client to increase fluid intake to aid in the rapid elimination of the potentially nephrotoxic dye used in urography. This instruction will help prevent any adverse effects related to the dye. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the dye used in urography is not radioactive, so there is no need to avoid direct contact with urine, urine dribbling is not a common post-procedure occurrence, and the dye should not cause the client's skin to change color.
4. After a lumbar puncture, into which position does the nurse assist the client?
- A. Flat
- B. Semi-Fowler
- C. Side-lying with the head of the bed elevated
- D. Sitting up in a recliner with the feet elevated
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, the client should be positioned flat. This position helps prevent post-procedure spinal headaches and cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Keeping the client flat for up to 12 hours is crucial in minimizing these risks. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because elevating the head of the bed or sitting up can increase the risk of complications by altering the pressure in the spinal canal, potentially leading to headaches and fluid leakage.
5. After delegating to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) the task of completing a bladder scan examination for a client, the nurse evaluates the UAP’s performance. Which action by the UAP indicates the nurse must provide additional instructions when delegating this task?
- A. Selecting the female icon for all female clients and the male icon for all male clients
- B. Explaining to the client, 'This test measures the amount of urine in your bladder.'
- C. Applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and cleaning it after use
- D. Taking at least two readings using the aiming icon to position the scanning head
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the UAP should select the female icon for women who have not had a hysterectomy to allow the scanner to subtract the volume of the uterus from readings. If a woman has had a hysterectomy, the UAP should choose the male icon. Choice B is incorrect as it is essential for the UAP to explain the procedure to the client to ensure understanding. Choice C is incorrect because applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and cleaning it after use are appropriate actions. Choice D is incorrect as it is necessary for the UAP to take at least two readings using the aiming icon to position the scanning head accurately for an effective bladder scan examination.
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