Nursing Elites

1. After a client with peripheral vascular disease undergoes a right femoral-popliteal bypass graft, their blood pressure drops from 124/80 to 94/62. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. IV fluid infusion.
• B. Pedal pulses.
• C. Nasal cannula oxygen flow rate.
• D. Capillary refill time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing pedal pulses is crucial in this situation as it helps determine the adequacy of perfusion to the lower extremity following a bypass graft. A decrease in blood pressure postoperatively could indicate decreased perfusion, making the assessment of pedal pulses a priority to ensure proper circulation. Checking IV fluid infusion, nasal cannula oxygen flow rate, or capillary refill time are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not provide direct information about perfusion to the affected extremity.

2. A nurse is assessing a postoperative client on an hourly basis. The nurse notes that the client’s urine output for the past hour was 25 mL. Based on this finding, the nurse first:

• A. Calls the physician
• B. Increases the rate of the IV infusion
• C. Checks the client’s overall intake and output record
• D. Administers a 250-mL bolus of normal saline solution (0.9%)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients are at risk of hypovolemia postoperatively, and decreased urine output can be an early sign. However, to accurately interpret this finding, the nurse must assess the overall fluid balance by checking the client’s intake and output records. Increasing the IV infusion rate or administering a bolus of normal saline solution without a physician's order would not be appropriate as these interventions require a prescription. The physician should be notified once the nurse has collected all necessary assessment data, including fluid status and vital signs.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease missed dialysis yesterday to attend a funeral. The client's wife calls the home health nurse and reports that her husband is lethargic and hard to arouse. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?

• A. Apply the client's home oxygen.
• B. Check for a thrill and bruit at the client's dialysis access site.
• C. Ensure the client avoids salt intake for the rest of the day.
• D. Take the client to the emergency department (ED).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most crucial instruction for the nurse to provide is to take the client to the emergency department (ED). Missing dialysis can lead to severe complications in clients with chronic kidney disease, such as electrolyte imbalances and fluid overload. Lethargy and difficulty in arousing the client suggest a critical situation that requires immediate medical attention. Applying home oxygen, checking the dialysis access site, and ensuring salt intake avoidance, although important, are not as urgent as seeking emergency care to address the potential severe complications from missed dialysis.

4. Alteplase recombinant, or tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), a thrombolytic enzyme, is administered during the first 6 hours after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) to:

• A. Control chest pain.
• B. Reduce coronary artery vasospasm.
• C. Control the arrhythmias associated with MI.
• D. Revascularize the blocked coronary artery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alteplase recombinant, or t-PA, is a thrombolytic enzyme used to dissolve clots and revascularize the blocked coronary artery in patients experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). Administering t-PA within the first 6 hours of MI onset is crucial to restore blood flow to the affected area and minimize cardiac tissue damage. Therefore, the correct answer is to revascularize the blocked coronary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while controlling chest pain, reducing coronary artery vasospasm, and managing arrhythmias are important goals in managing MI, the primary purpose of administering t-PA within the first 6 hours is to restore blood flow by dissolving clots and revascularizing the blocked coronary artery.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus who is taking NPH insulin (Humulin N) in the evening is most likely to become hypoglycemic shortly after midnight because this insulin peaks in 6 to 8 hours. What intervention should the nurse recommend to help prevent hypoglycemia while the client is sleeping?

• A. Eat a bedtime snack.
• B. Avoid physical activity.
• C. Take half the usual dose of insulin.
• D. Discontinue insulin until the next meal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Eating a bedtime snack is the most appropriate intervention to prevent hypoglycemia during the night when NPH insulin peaks. This snack helps maintain blood glucose levels and counteracts the risk of hypoglycemia. Avoiding physical activity is not recommended as it can further lower blood sugar levels. Taking half the usual dose of insulin can lead to inadequate control of blood sugar levels. Discontinuing insulin until the next meal can result in uncontrolled hyperglycemia, especially during the peak action of NPH insulin.

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