ATI LPN
ATI Adult Medical Surgical
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication before bedtime.
- B. Report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day.
- C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- D. Limit your fluid intake to less than 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In heart failure, fluid retention is a concern. Furosemide helps manage this by promoting diuresis. Instructing the client to report weight gain exceeding 2 pounds in a day is crucial as it can indicate fluid accumulation, prompting timely intervention to prevent worsening heart failure symptoms and complications.
2. A client with cirrhosis is at risk for bleeding. Which laboratory test is most important to monitor?
- A. Blood glucose
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Prothrombin time (PT)
- D. Electrolytes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) is crucial as it assesses the blood's ability to clot. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired liver function, affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, hence increasing the risk of bleeding. Maintaining a close watch on PT levels helps in timely intervention to prevent excessive bleeding episodes. Blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly related to the clotting function; serum creatinine (Choice B) and electrolytes (Choice D) are important, but in cirrhosis, monitoring PT takes precedence due to the increased bleeding risk.
3. In planning the turning schedule for a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to consider what assessment finding?
- A. 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities.
- B. A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten.
- C. Warm, dry skin with a fever of 100° F.
- D. Hypoactive bowel sounds with infrequent bowel movements.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low Braden score indicates a high risk for pressure ulcers, making regular turning crucial to prevent skin breakdown.
4. In a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, what laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this therapy?
- A. Serum creatinine
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. Serum potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin therapy is used to stimulate red blood cell production in patients with chronic kidney disease who often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production by the kidneys. Monitoring the hemoglobin level is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy as an increase in hemoglobin indicates improved red blood cell production and better management of anemia in these patients. Serum creatinine, white blood cell count, and serum potassium levels are important parameters to monitor in CKD patients but are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for managing anemia.
5. A client returns to the unit after a neck dissection. The surgeon placed a Jackson-Pratt drain in the wound. When assessing the wound drainage over the first 24 postoperative hours, what finding would prompt the nurse to notify the health care provider immediately?
- A. Presence of small blood clots in the drainage
- B. 60 mL of milky or cloudy drainage
- C. Spots of drainage on the dressings surrounding the drain
- D. 120 mL of serosanguinous drainage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Milky or cloudy drainage can indicate infection or lymphatic leakage, which requires immediate attention. This finding may suggest a serious complication post neck dissection, warranting prompt notification of the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.
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