Nursing Elites

1. During a home visit, the nurse should evaluate the adequacy of a client's COPD treatment by assessing for which primary symptom?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Unilateral diminished breath sounds
• D. Edema of the ankles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for dyspnea is crucial when evaluating COPD treatment effectiveness as it is a primary symptom of the condition. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a common and distressing symptom in COPD patients. Monitoring the severity of dyspnea can provide valuable insights into the client's response to treatment and disease progression.

2. The charge nurse observes that a client with a nasogastric tube on low intermittent suction is drinking a glass of water immediately after the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) left the room. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Remove the glass of water and speak to the UAP.
• B. Discuss the incident with the UAP at the end of the day.
• C. Write an incident report and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Remind the client of the potential for electrolyte imbalance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to take is to remove the glass of water and speak to the UAP. This ensures immediate correction and education to prevent further issues with the nasogastric tube. Addressing the situation promptly can prevent harm to the client and reinforces the importance of following proper protocols.

3. When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?

• A. Brudzinski's sign
• B. Positive Babinski reflex
• C. Kernig's sign
• D. Both A and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Both Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are classic signs of meningeal irritation, commonly associated with meningitis. Brudzinski's sign is positive when flexing the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hips and knees due to irritation of the meninges. Kernig's sign is positive when there is pain and resistance with knee extension after hip flexion, indicating meningeal irritation or inflammation. The Babinski reflex, mentioned in choice B, is a test used to assess upper motor neuron damage and is not specific to meningitis. Therefore, choices A and C are the correct options as they are indicative of meningeal irritation in a suspected case of meningitis.

4. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

• A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
• B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
• C. Prescribe celecoxib
• D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

5. A patient with an anxiety disorder is prescribed alprazolam. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Increase energy levels
• B. Induce sedation
• C. Elevate mood
• D. Reduce anxiety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine that primarily works by reducing anxiety. It achieves this by enhancing the inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter GABA in the brain, which leads to a calming effect on the individual. Therefore, the primary action of alprazolam is to decrease anxiety levels rather than increase energy, induce sedation, or elevate mood.

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