Nursing Elites

1. A male client in the day room becomes increasingly angry and aggressive when denied a day-pass. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Tell him he can have a day pass if he calms down.
• B. Put the client's behavior on extinction.
• C. Decrease the volume on the television set.
• D. Instruct the client to sit down and be quiet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Instructing the client to sit down and be quiet is a direct and assertive approach that can help de-escalate the situation safely. It sets clear boundaries and expectations for the client's behavior, which may help reduce agitation and aggression in this scenario. Offering a day pass if the client calms down (Choice A) might reinforce the aggressive behavior. Putting the client's behavior on extinction (Choice B) involves not reinforcing the behavior, but it may not directly address the immediate safety concern. Decreasing the volume on the television set (Choice C) does not address the client's behavior directly and may not effectively manage the escalating situation.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. No bruit or thrill over the AV fistula.
• B. Redness at the site of the AV fistula.
• C. Client's complaint of pain at the AV fistula site.
• D. Swelling of the hand on the side of the AV fistula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a chronic kidney disease who has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis, the absence of a bruit (a humming sound) or thrill (vibratory sensation) over the AV fistula indicates a potential occlusion. This finding suggests inadequate blood flow through the AV fistula, which is a critical issue requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as thrombosis or clot formation. Reporting this absence of bruit or thrill promptly to the healthcare provider is essential to ensure timely assessment and management to maintain vascular access for hemodialysis.

3. A patient with type 1 diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine. What is the primary characteristic of this insulin?

• A. Rapid-acting
• B. Intermediate-acting
• C. Long-acting
• D. Short-acting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Insulin glargine is classified as a long-acting insulin. It is designed to provide a consistent level of insulin over approximately 24 hours, helping to keep blood glucose levels stable throughout the day. This long duration of action makes it suitable for basal insulin replacement in patients with type 1 diabetes, providing a background level of insulin to mimic the body's natural release of insulin between meals and overnight.

4. A 34-year-old woman presents with intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She notes that her symptoms improve with fasting. She has a history of iron deficiency anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Irritable bowel syndrome
• B. Celiac disease
• C. Lactose intolerance
• D. Crohn's disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea that improve with fasting, along with a history of iron deficiency anemia, are highly suggestive of celiac disease. In celiac disease, gluten ingestion leads to mucosal damage in the small intestine, causing malabsorption of nutrients like iron, leading to anemia. The improvement of symptoms with fasting can be explained by the temporary avoidance of gluten-containing foods. Irritable bowel syndrome typically does not improve with fasting. Lactose intolerance usually presents with symptoms after dairy consumption, not with fasting. Crohn's disease typically presents with more chronic symptoms and is not commonly associated with improvement on fasting.

5. What is the best therapy for a 65-year-old man with symptoms of regurgitation, chest pain, dysphagia, weight loss, dilated esophagus, and an absent gastric air bubble on CXR?

• A. Proton-pump inhibitor
• B. Endoscopic balloon dilatation
• C. Sucralfate
• D. Esophageal resection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation and radiologic findings are consistent with achalasia. The absence of a mass on upper endoscopy and CT scan helps rule out secondary causes. Achalasia is best managed with endoscopic balloon dilatation or myotomy. Proton-pump inhibitors are not effective for achalasia. Sucralfate is not a primary treatment for achalasia. Esophageal resection is only considered if malignancy develops. Patients with achalasia may experience chest pain and weight loss due to food accumulation in the dilated esophagus. Endoscopic balloon dilatation is a safe and effective treatment option for improving symptoms in achalasia patients.

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