Nursing Elites

1. A male client in the day room becomes increasingly angry and aggressive when denied a day-pass. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Tell him he can have a day pass if he calms down.
• B. Put the client's behavior on extinction.
• C. Decrease the volume on the television set.
• D. Instruct the client to sit down and be quiet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Instructing the client to sit down and be quiet is a direct and assertive approach that can help de-escalate the situation safely. It sets clear boundaries and expectations for the client's behavior, which may help reduce agitation and aggression in this scenario. Offering a day pass if the client calms down (Choice A) might reinforce the aggressive behavior. Putting the client's behavior on extinction (Choice B) involves not reinforcing the behavior, but it may not directly address the immediate safety concern. Decreasing the volume on the television set (Choice C) does not address the client's behavior directly and may not effectively manage the escalating situation.

2. The healthcare provider in the outpatient clinic has obtained health histories for these new patients. Which patient may need referral for genetic testing?

• A. 35-year-old patient whose maternal grandparents died after strokes at ages 90 and 96
• B. 18-year-old patient with a positive pregnancy test whose first child has cerebral palsy
• C. 34-year-old patient who has a sibling with newly diagnosed polycystic kidney disease
• D. 50-year-old patient with a history of cigarette smoking who is complaining of dyspnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The 34-year-old patient who has a sibling with newly diagnosed polycystic kidney disease may need referral for genetic testing. Polycystic kidney disease is an autosomal dominant disorder that can be asymptomatic until later in life. Presymptomatic testing can provide valuable information for guiding lifestyle and family planning decisions. The other patients do not present indications for genetic testing based on the information provided in their health histories. The 35-year-old patient's maternal grandparents' strokes are not indicative of a need for genetic testing. The 18-year-old patient's child having cerebral palsy is not a direct indication for genetic testing of the patient herself. The 50-year-old patient's symptoms are more likely related to smoking and respiratory issues, not genetic predisposition to a specific disease.

3. An otherwise healthy 45-year-old man presents with severe hematochezia and moderate abdominal cramping since this morning. A barium enema one year ago was normal. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/78 and pulse is 100 while lying; when standing, the blood pressure is 110/76 and pulse is 136. His hematocrit is 34. What is the most likely cause of bleeding?

• A. Diverticular bleed
• B. Duodenal ulcer
• C. Inflammatory bowel disease
• D. Vascular ectasia (watermelon stomach)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with hematochezia, moderate abdominal cramping, and hemodynamic changes (increased pulse on standing) suggests an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The drop in blood pressure and rise in pulse rate when standing indicate orthostatic hypotension, which is a sign of significant blood loss. The absence of melena does not rule out an upper GI bleed. Ulcers in the duodenal bulb can erode into the gastroduodenal artery, leading to brisk blood loss. A normal barium enema one year ago makes diverticular bleeding less likely. Inflammatory bowel disease usually does not cause severe acute GI bleeding unless there is ulceration into a vessel. Vascular ectasia, like watermelon stomach, typically presents with chronic blood loss and iron deficiency anemia, more common in older women. The absence of vomiting and the presence of hematochezia make Mallory-Weiss tear less likely in this case.

4. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. Laboratory tests reveal low TSH and high free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Hypothyroidism
• B. Hyperthyroidism
• C. Thyroiditis
• D. Thyroid cancer

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presentation of low TSH and high free T4 levels is characteristic of hyperthyroidism, which is consistent with the symptoms of fatigue, weight gain, and constipation described in the case. In hyperthyroidism, the thyroid gland produces an excess of thyroid hormone leading to a hypermetabolic state, which can manifest with these symptoms.

5. The client was recently diagnosed with chronic gastritis. What health practice should the nurse address when teaching the client to limit exacerbations of the disease?

• A. Perform 15 minutes of physical activity at least three times per week.
• B. Avoid taking aspirin to treat pain or fever.
• C. Take multivitamins as prescribed and eat organic foods whenever possible.
• D. Maintain a healthy body weight.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding aspirin is crucial in managing chronic gastritis as it can further irritate the stomach lining, leading to exacerbations of the condition. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase stomach acid production, potentially worsening gastritis symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should educate the client on using alternative pain or fever relief methods that are less likely to aggravate gastritis, such as acetaminophen.

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