ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus presents with confusion, sweating, and palpitations. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
- B. Administer 10 units of insulin.
- C. Give the client a high-protein snack.
- D. Measure the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for a client presenting with confusion, sweating, and palpitations, suggestive of hypoglycemia, is to check the client's blood glucose level. This step helps to confirm if the symptoms are due to low blood sugar levels and guides appropriate interventions. Administering insulin without knowing the current blood glucose level can be dangerous and is not recommended as the initial step. Offering a high-protein snack may be necessary after confirming hypoglycemia, but checking the blood glucose level takes precedence. Measuring blood pressure is not the priority in this situation; addressing hypoglycemia is the immediate concern.
2. An elderly male client reports to the clinic nurse that he is experiencing increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. He reports a weak urine flow and frequent dribbling after voiding. Which nursing action should be implemented?
- A. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity.
- B. Encourage the client to schedule a digital rectal exam.
- C. Advise the client to maintain a voiding diary for one week.
- D. Instruct the client in effective techniques for cleansing the glans penis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to schedule a digital rectal exam is the most appropriate nursing action in this situation. This exam can help evaluate for potential prostate enlargement or other issues contributing to the urinary symptoms described by the client. It is important to assess the prostate gland for any abnormalities that may be causing the urinary issues reported by the client.
3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?
- A. INR of 2.5.
- B. PTT of 45 seconds.
- C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
- D. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for clients receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to prevent thromboembolism. It is essential to monitor INR levels regularly when on warfarin therapy to ensure that the blood's ability to clot is within the desired range to prevent both clotting and excessive bleeding.
4. A male client is admitted to the neurological unit. He has just sustained a C-5 spinal cord injury. Which assessment finding of this client warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Is unable to feel sensation in the arms and hands.
- B. Has flaccid upper and lower extremities.
- C. Blood pressure is 110/70 and the apical pulse is 68.
- D. Respirations are shallow, labored, and 14 breaths/minute.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Respirations that are shallow, labored, and at 14 breaths/minute indicate potential respiratory compromise, which is a critical situation requiring immediate intervention to maintain adequate oxygenation and prevent respiratory failure.
5. A 50-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to his back, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of heavy alcohol use. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum amylase and lipase. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Acute cholecystitis
- B. Peptic ulcer disease
- C. Acute pancreatitis
- D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The patient's history of heavy alcohol use, severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, nausea, vomiting, and elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are classic signs of acute pancreatitis. Alcohol consumption is a common predisposing factor for pancreatitis, leading to inflammation of the pancreas. The clinical presentation, along with the laboratory findings, strongly support the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis in this patient.
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