Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus presents with confusion, sweating, and palpitations. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Administer 10 units of insulin.
• C. Give the client a high-protein snack.
• D. Measure the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for a client presenting with confusion, sweating, and palpitations, suggestive of hypoglycemia, is to check the client's blood glucose level. This step helps to confirm if the symptoms are due to low blood sugar levels and guides appropriate interventions. Administering insulin without knowing the current blood glucose level can be dangerous and is not recommended as the initial step. Offering a high-protein snack may be necessary after confirming hypoglycemia, but checking the blood glucose level takes precedence. Measuring blood pressure is not the priority in this situation; addressing hypoglycemia is the immediate concern.

2. A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, along with laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria strongly suggest type 1 diabetes mellitus. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, there is a deficiency of insulin leading to high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia) and the breakdown of fats producing ketones, causing ketonuria. Type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents differently and is more common in older individuals. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, distinct from the provided clinical scenario. Hyperthyroidism may present with some overlapping symptoms like fatigue, but it does not account for the specific laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria seen in this case.

3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increasing shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Barrel-shaped chest.
• B. Use of accessory muscles to breathe.
• C. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• D. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical finding in a client with COPD. Hypoxemia can lead to serious complications and may require immediate intervention, such as adjusting oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation levels and prevent further respiratory distress. Monitoring and maintaining adequate oxygen saturation is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations and preventing respiratory failure.

4. A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Laboratory tests reveal high TSH and low free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Hypothyroidism
• B. Hyperthyroidism
• C. Thyroiditis
• D. Thyroid cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The scenario describes a 35-year-old woman with symptoms of fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance along with high TSH and low free T4 levels. These findings are consistent with the diagnosis of hypothyroidism. In hypothyroidism, there is decreased thyroid hormone production leading to elevated TSH levels as the body tries to stimulate the thyroid to produce more hormone. The low free T4 levels indicate insufficient thyroid hormone in the blood, which can manifest as symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance.

5. A 46-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis is brought in by his wife because he has been acting strangely. On examination, he is disoriented, ataxic, and has slurred speech. He is also hyperreflexic. His white blood cell count is normal. His hematocrit is 34%. Coagulation times are elevated. His ammonia level is normal. Which of the following statements regarding his management is correct?

• A. He should be treated with a low-protein diet and lactulose
• B. Lorazepam is not the drug of choice to control his behavior
• C. He should not be placed on gentamicin prophylactically to prevent the development of peritonitis
• D. If the patient complains of pain, acetaminophen should be avoided and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents should be used

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms consistent with hepatic encephalopathy. Despite having a normal ammonia level, he should be treated with lactulose and a low-protein diet as recommended for stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. The normal ammonia level does not exclude the diagnosis, as it lacks sensitivity and specificity. Medications like lorazepam, gentamicin, and NSAIDs should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects in patients with liver disease. Acetaminophen should also be avoided in such patients.

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