Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus presents with confusion, sweating, and palpitations. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Administer 10 units of insulin.
• C. Give the client a high-protein snack.
• D. Measure the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for a client presenting with confusion, sweating, and palpitations, suggestive of hypoglycemia, is to check the client's blood glucose level. This step helps to confirm if the symptoms are due to low blood sugar levels and guides appropriate interventions. Administering insulin without knowing the current blood glucose level can be dangerous and is not recommended as the initial step. Offering a high-protein snack may be necessary after confirming hypoglycemia, but checking the blood glucose level takes precedence. Measuring blood pressure is not the priority in this situation; addressing hypoglycemia is the immediate concern.

2. What is the best therapy for a 65-year-old man with symptoms of regurgitation, chest pain, dysphagia, weight loss, dilated esophagus, and an absent gastric air bubble on CXR?

• A. Proton-pump inhibitor
• B. Endoscopic balloon dilatation
• C. Sucralfate
• D. Esophageal resection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation and radiologic findings are consistent with achalasia. The absence of a mass on upper endoscopy and CT scan helps rule out secondary causes. Achalasia is best managed with endoscopic balloon dilatation or myotomy. Proton-pump inhibitors are not effective for achalasia. Sucralfate is not a primary treatment for achalasia. Esophageal resection is only considered if malignancy develops. Patients with achalasia may experience chest pain and weight loss due to food accumulation in the dilated esophagus. Endoscopic balloon dilatation is a safe and effective treatment option for improving symptoms in achalasia patients.

3. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention to help alleviate severe abdominal pain in a patient with acute pancreatitis?

• A. Encourage oral intake of clear fluids with electrolytes.
• B. Place the patient in a semi-Fowler's position.
• C. Administer prescribed opioid analgesics.
• D. Apply a cold pack to the abdomen.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering prescribed opioid analgesics is the most appropriate nursing intervention to alleviate severe abdominal pain in a patient with acute pancreatitis. Opioid analgesics help manage severe pain effectively in such cases. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids with electrolytes is contraindicated due to the need for pancreatic rest and potential exacerbation of symptoms. Placing the patient in a semi-Fowler's position helps reduce pressure on the abdomen, unlike a supine position that can worsen the pain. Applying a cold pack is not recommended as it can potentially increase discomfort and vasoconstriction in acute pancreatitis.

4. A 35-year-old male patient presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever for the past 48 hours, preceded by new onset jaundice over the past few weeks. He states that he has had diarrhea on and off for several years but never had this investigated. A liver ultrasound is negative for gallstones or evidence of cholecystitis. His lab tests reveal total bilirubin 6.2, alkaline phosphatase 450, AST 150, ALT 120, albumin 2.6. The next diagnostic test of choice would be

• A. Liver biopsy
• B. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
• C. Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis C RNA assay
• D. Colonoscopy with biopsies

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with abnormal liver function tests, suggests a biliary tract problem. Given the suspicion of obstructed bile flow and the negative liver ultrasound for gallstones, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is the next appropriate step to evaluate the biliary system and pancreatic ducts. MRCP is non-invasive and can provide detailed images for diagnosis. Liver biopsy is not the preferred initial diagnostic test in this context. Testing for hepatitis B and C would not address the current clinical scenario, and colonoscopy is not indicated for the presenting symptoms.

5. Your patient has an order to receive Levothyroxine Sodium 75 mcg daily IV. You have a vial containing 100 mcg available from the pharmacy. According to the package insert, 5 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride is needed to reconstitute. You add the appropriate amount of sodium chloride to the vial. How many mcg of medication are in 1 mL of the vial?

• A. 20 mcg
• B. 15 mcg
• C. 25 mcg
• D. 30 mcg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of Levothyroxine Sodium in the vial is 100 mcg in 5 mL, which equals 20 mcg/mL. Therefore, in 1 mL of the vial, there are 20 mcg of medication.

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