a 45 year old man with a history of chronic heartburn presents with progressive difficulty swallowing solids and liquids he has lost 10 pounds in the
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1. A 45-year-old man with a history of chronic heartburn presents with progressive difficulty swallowing solids and liquids. He has lost 10 pounds in the past two months. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation of progressive dysphagia to both solids and liquids, along with significant weight loss, is concerning for esophageal cancer. The history of chronic heartburn further raises suspicion as chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease is a risk factor for the development of esophageal adenocarcinoma. Esophageal stricture could cause dysphagia but is less likely to be associated with significant weight loss. Achalasia typically presents with dysphagia to solids more than liquids and does not commonly cause weight loss. Peptic ulcer disease is less likely to lead to progressive dysphagia and significant weight loss compared to esophageal cancer.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Regular monitoring of blood pressure is crucial for individuals with hypertension to assess the effectiveness of the prescribed medication and to ensure blood pressure is within the target range. This helps in managing hypertension and preventing complications associated with high blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while taking the medication in the morning may be recommended for some drugs, it is not the key instruction for hydrochlorothiazide. Avoiding foods high in potassium and decreasing high-sodium foods are important dietary considerations for certain conditions, but they are not the immediate focus when starting hydrochlorothiazide.

3. While assessing a client with preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate, the nurse notes her deep tendon reflexes are 1+, respiratory rate is 12 breaths/minute, urinary output is 90 ml in 4 hours, and magnesium sulfate level is 9 mg/dl. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these findings?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately in a client with preeclampsia exhibiting diminished reflexes, respiratory depression, and low urinary output, which indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. This action is crucial to prevent further complications and adverse effects on the client.

4. After a client's neck dissection surgery resulted in damage to the superior laryngeal nerve, what area of assessment should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Damage to the superior laryngeal nerve can lead to swallowing difficulties due to impaired laryngeal function. As a result, assessing the client's swallowing ability is crucial to prevent aspiration and ensure proper nutrition and hydration.

5. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed ranitidine (Zantac). Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's statement that they should take ranitidine with meals indicates a need for further teaching. Ranitidine is typically taken at bedtime or before meals to be most effective in reducing stomach acid. Taking it with meals may not provide the optimal therapeutic effect.

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