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1. A 60-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Hepatitis C
- B. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- C. Hemochromatosis
- D. Wilson's disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, pruritus, jaundice, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels are classic features of primary biliary cirrhosis, an autoimmune liver disease. Hepatitis C typically presents with different symptoms and findings, such as specific viral markers. Hemochromatosis and Wilson's disease involve iron overload and copper accumulation, respectively, leading to distinct clinical and laboratory findings, which do not match the presentation described in this case.
2. What is/are the possible cause(s) of acute pancreatitis in this patient?
- A. HIV
- B. Cytomegalovirus
- C. Dideoxyinosine (ddI)
- D. Pentamidine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms and lab findings consistent with acute pancreatitis. Cytomegalovirus is a common viral infection associated with pancreatitis. In patients with AIDS, the pancreas can be affected by various infections (e.g., cryptococcus, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, candida, Toxoplasma gondii) and medications (such as ddI, pentamidine, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, metronidazole) can also lead to acute pancreatitis. While HIV infection predisposes individuals to various opportunistic infections, in this case, the most likely cause of the acute pancreatitis is cytomegalovirus infection.
3. A 48-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Laboratory tests reveal high TSH and low free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Hypothyroidism
- B. Hyperthyroidism
- C. Thyroiditis
- D. Thyroid cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The scenario describes a classic presentation of hypothyroidism, supported by the laboratory findings of high TSH and low free T4 levels. In hypothyroidism, the body's thyroid hormone levels are inadequate, leading to symptoms like fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. High TSH is a compensatory mechanism by the body to increase thyroid hormone production, which is deficient, resulting in a negative feedback loop. Therefore, the correct answer is hypothyroidism.
4. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?
- A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
- B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
- C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
- D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods to prevent its absorption, which is why it should be taken with meals. By taking RenaGel with meals, it can effectively bind with phosphorus from food, reducing the amount of phosphorus absorbed by the body, thus helping to manage hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because RenaGel's primary action is to bind with phosphorus in foods, not related to preventing indigestion, promoting stomach emptying, or buffering hydrochloric acid.
5. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. What is an important side effect for the healthcare provider to monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Weight gain
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known to cause significant weight gain and metabolic syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor patients for these side effects to prevent complications and provide appropriate interventions.
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