Nursing Elites

1. A 60-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Hepatitis C
• B. Primary biliary cirrhosis
• C. Hemochromatosis
• D. Wilson's disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, pruritus, jaundice, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels are classic features of primary biliary cirrhosis, an autoimmune liver disease. Hepatitis C typically presents with different symptoms and findings, such as specific viral markers. Hemochromatosis and Wilson's disease involve iron overload and copper accumulation, respectively, leading to distinct clinical and laboratory findings, which do not match the presentation described in this case.

2. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed calcium acetate. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Treat hyperkalemia
• B. Reduce phosphate levels
• C. Lower blood pressure
• D. Increase hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of prescribing calcium acetate to a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is to reduce phosphate levels. Calcium acetate binds to dietary phosphate, preventing its absorption and helping to manage hyperphosphatemia commonly seen in CKD patients.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?

• A. Platelet count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT).
• C. Hemoglobin level.
• D. White blood cell count.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When caring for a patient on warfarin, monitoring prothrombin time (PT) is crucial. PT helps assess the blood's ability to clot properly, ensuring the patient maintains therapeutic anticoagulation levels while minimizing bleeding risks. Platelet count (Choice A) is important but not the most critical for warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (Choice C) and white blood cell count (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the effects of warfarin.

4. A patient with anemia is prescribed ferrous sulfate. What advice should the nurse give regarding the administration of this medication?

• A. Take with dairy products to increase absorption.
• B. Take on an empty stomach for best absorption.
• C. Avoid vitamin C while taking this medication.
• D. Take before bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct advice for the administration of ferrous sulfate is to take it on an empty stomach for best absorption. This enhances the absorption of iron. If gastrointestinal upset occurs, the medication can be taken with food. Taking ferrous sulfate with dairy products is not recommended as calcium can inhibit iron absorption. Taking it before bedtime is also not recommended. Vitamin C can actually help with the absorption of iron and is often recommended to be taken alongside iron supplements to enhance absorption. Therefore, avoiding vitamin C while taking ferrous sulfate is not correct.

5. During an assessment, a healthcare professional suspects a client has cholecystitis. What is a common symptom of this condition?

• A. Right upper quadrant pain
• B. Left lower quadrant pain
• C. Generalized abdominal pain
• D. Epigastric pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Right upper quadrant pain is a hallmark symptom of cholecystitis, indicating inflammation of the gallbladder. The gallbladder is typically located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, so pain in this area is characteristic of cholecystitis. This pain may be sharp or cramp-like and can be accompanied by other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and fever. Left lower quadrant pain (choice B) is more commonly associated with diverticulitis, generalized abdominal pain (choice C) can be seen in various conditions, and epigastric pain (choice D) is typically related to issues in the upper central part of the abdomen, such as gastritis or peptic ulcers, rather than cholecystitis.

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