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Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. The client with newly diagnosed hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which recommendation should be made?
- A. Increase your intake of saturated fats.
- B. Limit your alcohol intake to two drinks per day.
- C. Engage in at least 150 minutes of moderate exercise per week.
- D. Use table salt liberally to season your food.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Engaging in at least 150 minutes of moderate exercise per week is a key lifestyle modification recommended for individuals with hypertension. Regular exercise helps manage blood pressure, improve cardiovascular health, and overall well-being. It is important for the client to adopt a healthy lifestyle to control hypertension and reduce the risk of complications.
2. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Administer the injection in your thigh.
- B. Do not expel the air bubble from the syringe before injection.
- C. Massage the injection site after administration.
- D. Alternate the injection site between the arms.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox) is not to expel the air bubble from the syringe before injection. This ensures the full dose is delivered without affecting the medication's efficacy. Expelling the air bubble may lead to a loss of medication, resulting in suboptimal treatment. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to follow this instruction to receive the intended therapeutic effect of enoxaparin.
3. During a home visit, the nurse should evaluate the adequacy of a client's COPD treatment by assessing for which primary symptom?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Unilateral diminished breath sounds
- D. Edema of the ankles
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing for dyspnea is crucial when evaluating COPD treatment effectiveness as it is a primary symptom of the condition. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a common and distressing symptom in COPD patients. Monitoring the severity of dyspnea can provide valuable insights into the client's response to treatment and disease progression.
4. A 56-year-old white male complains of intermittent dysphagia for the past three months, particularly with the ingestion of meat. He has no difficulties swallowing liquids. He has no history of smoking, uses no medications, and has had no weight loss. What test would be best to evaluate him?
- A. Upper endoscopy
- B. Chest/abdominal CT scan
- C. Barium swallow
- D. Esophageal manometry
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a patient presenting with intermittent dysphagia, especially with solids like meat, a barium swallow is the most appropriate initial test. In this case, the classic presentation suggests a Schatzki’s ring, which is best visualized through a barium study. Upper endoscopy may not always visualize Schatzki’s rings effectively. Chest/abdominal CT scan and esophageal manometry are not the preferred tests for diagnosing Schatzki’s rings. Treatment for Schatzki’s rings often involves bougie dilatation, and no further therapy may be necessary.
5. A patient with severe anemia is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Stimulate white blood cell production
- B. Increase platelet count
- C. Promote red blood cell production
- D. Enhance clotting factor production
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Erythropoietin is a hormone that primarily stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells. By increasing red blood cell production, erythropoietin helps to improve oxygen delivery to tissues, which is essential in managing anemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin specifically targets red blood cell production and does not have a direct effect on white blood cells, platelets, or clotting factors.
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