Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL. What type of insulin should the nurse prepare to administer to this client?

• A. Regular insulin
• B. NPH insulin
• C. Lispro insulin
• D. Glargine insulin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL, which indicates severe hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis, the nurse should prepare to administer regular insulin (A). Regular insulin has a rapid onset of action and is the preferred choice for immediate correction of high blood glucose levels. NPH insulin (B), lispro insulin (C), and glargine insulin (D) are not suitable for the rapid correction of severe hyperglycemia.

2. A client with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease is receiving atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Liver function tests (LFTs)
• D. Serum cholesterol level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of atorvastatin (Lipitor), the nurse should monitor liver function tests (LFTs) (C) because this medication can impact liver function. Complete blood count (CBC) (A), serum potassium level (B), and serum cholesterol level (D) are not directly indicative of the medication's effectiveness in managing coronary artery disease.

3. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

4. The healthcare provider is conducting an initial admission assessment for a woman who is Mexican-American and who is scheduled to deliver a baby by C-section in the next 24 hours. What should the healthcare provider include in the assessment?

• A. Provide an interpreter to convey the meaning of words and messages in translation
• B. Commend the client for her patience during a long wait in the admission process
• C. Arrange for the hospital chaplain to visit the client during her hospital stay
• D. Rely on cultural norms as the basis for providing healthcare for this client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for patients from diverse cultural backgrounds, it is essential to respect and consider their cultural norms and practices while providing healthcare. Understanding and incorporating cultural beliefs and values can enhance the quality of care and improve patient outcomes.

5. When bathing an uncircumcised boy older than 3 years, which action should the nurse take?

• A. Remind the child to clean his genital area.
• B. Defer perineal care due to the child's age.
• C. Retract the foreskin gently to cleanse the penis.
• D. Inquire about the reason for the child not being circumcised.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action when bathing an uncircumcised boy older than 3 years is to gently retract the foreskin to cleanse the penis. This is important to ensure proper hygiene and prevent the accumulation of bacteria that can lead to infections. It is not advisable to defer perineal care because of the child's age, as hygiene is crucial at any age. Asking the parents about the circumcision status may not be relevant during routine perineal care. Reminding the child to clean his genital area is not as effective as directly cleaning the area during bathing.

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