HESI RN
HESI Quizlet Fundamentals
1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL. What type of insulin should the nurse prepare to administer to this client?
- A. Regular insulin
- B. NPH insulin
- C. Lispro insulin
- D. Glargine insulin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL, which indicates severe hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis, the nurse should prepare to administer regular insulin (A). Regular insulin has a rapid onset of action and is the preferred choice for immediate correction of high blood glucose levels. NPH insulin (B), lispro insulin (C), and glargine insulin (D) are not suitable for the rapid correction of severe hyperglycemia.
2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?
- A. To increase gastric motility.
- B. To decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
- C. To reduce secretions.
- D. To prevent nausea and vomiting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.
3. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
- B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
- C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
- D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.
4. Which task can the registered nurse (RN) caring for a critically ill patient with multiple IV lines delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?
- A. Administer IV antibiotics through the implantable port.
- B. Monitor the IV sites for redness, swelling, or tenderness.
- C. Remove the patient’s nontunneled subclavian central venous catheter.
- D. Adjust the flow rate of the 0.9% normal saline in the peripheral IV line.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An experienced LPN/LVN can monitor IV sites for signs of infection because it falls within their education, experience, and scope of practice. Administering IV antibiotics through an implantable port, adjusting infusion rates, and removing central catheters are tasks that require RN level education and scope of practice. These activities involve a higher level of assessment, critical thinking, and potential complications that are typically within the RN's domain.
5. A public health nurse is evaluating a program designed to reduce the incidence of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) among teenagers. Which outcome indicates that the program is successful?
- A. increased attendance at educational sessions on STIs
- B. higher rates of condom use among teenagers
- C. more teenagers seeking testing for STIs
- D. greater knowledge of STI prevention methods
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: higher rates of condom use among teenagers. This outcome indicates that the teenagers are adopting safer sexual practices, which can effectively reduce the incidence of STIs. Increased attendance at educational sessions (Choice A) may show interest but does not directly reflect behavior change. More teenagers seeking testing for STIs (Choice C) indicates awareness but not necessarily prevention. Greater knowledge of STI prevention methods (Choice D) is valuable but does not guarantee behavioral change like increased condom use.