a client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mgdl what type of insulin should the nurse prepare to admin
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HESI Quizlet Fundamentals

1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL. What type of insulin should the nurse prepare to administer to this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL, which indicates severe hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis, the nurse should prepare to administer regular insulin (A). Regular insulin has a rapid onset of action and is the preferred choice for immediate correction of high blood glucose levels. NPH insulin (B), lispro insulin (C), and glargine insulin (D) are not suitable for the rapid correction of severe hyperglycemia.

2. Which assessment data indicates the need for the nurse to include the problem 'Risk for falls' in a client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The administration of opioid analgesics can impair balance and increase the risk of falls, justifying the inclusion of 'Risk for falls' in the client’s care plan. Choice A, a recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL, is not directly related to the risk of falls. Choice C, stooped posture with an unsteady gait, may indicate a risk for falls, but the direct influence of opioid analgesics on balance is more immediate. Choice D, expressed feelings of depression, while important, is not a direct indicator of the immediate risk for falls associated with opioid analgesic use.

3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (B) is the priority intervention for a client with COPD exacerbation to improve oxygenation. In COPD exacerbation, there is impaired gas exchange leading to hypoxemia, making oxygen therapy the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators (A) helps with bronchodilation but should come after ensuring adequate oxygenation. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing (C) and positioning the client in high Fowler's position (D) are also beneficial interventions, but the first step is to address the oxygenation needs of the client.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.

5. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement 'I should continue taking my over-the-counter herbal supplements' (D) indicates a need for further teaching because some herbal supplements can interact with anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. It is crucial to inform healthcare providers about all medications, including herbal supplements, to prevent adverse interactions. The other statements reflect appropriate understanding of precautions related to DVT and anticoagulation therapy.

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