ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client with a new prescription for simvastatin is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. 'I should take this medication in the evening.'
- B. 'I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.'
- C. 'I should expect my urine to be red-orange while taking this medication.'
- D. 'I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking simvastatin in the evening is recommended because cholesterol synthesis increases at night. This timing maximizes the effectiveness of the medication in lowering cholesterol levels. Choice B is incorrect because grapefruit juice should be avoided with certain statins, but simvastatin is not significantly affected by grapefruit juice. Choice C is incorrect as red-orange urine is not an expected side effect of simvastatin. Choice D is incorrect because simvastatin is typically prescribed for managing cholesterol levels and may not need to be taken for the rest of the client's life.
2. The nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which action should the nurse take to prevent postoperative complications?
- A. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe every 1 to 2 hours.
- B. Maintain the client in a supine position at all times.
- C. Keep the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours.
- D. Restrict the client's fluid intake to prevent overload.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe every 1 to 2 hours is crucial post-CABG surgery to prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis and pneumonia. These actions help to expand lung volume, clear secretions, and prevent the collapse of alveoli. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because maintaining the client in a supine position at all times can lead to complications like decreased lung expansion, keeping the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours may increase the risk of thromboembolism, and restricting fluid intake postoperatively can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
3. When preparing to administer a controlled substance, which of the following actions is required?
- A. Check the client's identification bracelet.
- B. Check the client's allergy status.
- C. Have a second nurse witness disposal of the medication.
- D. Document the administration in the client's medical record.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When administering controlled substances, it is crucial to have a second nurse witness the disposal of the medication. This measure ensures proper handling, reduces the risk of diversion, and promotes compliance with regulations regarding controlled substances. Having a second nurse witness the disposal is a safeguard to maintain accountability and prevent any potential misuse or errors during the disposal process. Checking the client's identification bracelet and allergy status are important steps in medication administration but are not specifically required for controlled substances. Documenting the administration in the client's medical record is essential but does not specifically relate to the disposal of controlled substances.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Prime the blood tubing with normal saline.
- B. Verify the client’s identity using two identifiers.
- C. Infuse the blood rapidly over 30 minutes.
- D. Obtain the client’s vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the client’s identity using two identifiers is a critical patient safety measure to ensure the correct patient receives the blood transfusion. This process involves checking the patient's identity using at least two unique identifiers, such as name, date of birth, or medical record number, to prevent administration errors. Priming the blood tubing with normal saline is necessary to ensure there are no air bubbles in the tubing, but it is not the immediate action required before administering the blood. Infusing packed red blood cells over 30 minutes is generally too rapid and can lead to adverse reactions; a slower rate is recommended for safe administration. Obtaining vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion is not frequent enough to monitor the client adequately for potential transfusion reactions or complications; vital signs should be monitored more frequently, especially during the initial phase of the transfusion.
5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, which increases the risk of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can have serious implications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential to closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels while on furosemide to prevent complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is incorrect because furosemide leads to potassium loss, not retention. Hypernatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.
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