a client with a deep vein thrombosis dvt is receiving heparin therapy which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of th
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works by prolonging the clotting time, which is reflected in the aPTT results. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range and not at risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (PT) (Choice A) primarily measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count (Choice B) assesses the number of platelets present in the blood and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. International normalized ratio (INR) (Choice D) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.

2. A 35-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Laboratory tests reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 35-year-old man with fatigue, weight loss, hyperpigmentation of the skin, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels is classic for Addison's disease. These findings are consistent with primary adrenal insufficiency, where the adrenal glands fail to produce adequate cortisol. In Addison's disease, the adrenal cortex is damaged, leading to decreased cortisol production and elevated levels of ACTH. This results in symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation due to increased ACTH production stimulating melanocytes. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are common electrolyte abnormalities seen in Addison's disease due to aldosterone deficiency. Therefore, the correct diagnosis in this case is Addison's disease.

3. A client with a history of asthma is prescribed salmeterol (Serevent). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed salmeterol (Serevent) is to use it twice daily for long-term control. Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator that is not intended for acute asthma attacks or as-needed use for wheezing. Choice A is incorrect because salmeterol is not used for acute asthma attacks. Choice B is incorrect as salmeterol is not meant to replace the albuterol inhaler but rather used for long-term control. Choice D is incorrect because salmeterol should not be used as needed; it is a maintenance medication for asthma.

4. A patient is being cared for after bariatric surgery, and the healthcare provider is assessing for hemorrhage. What is a sign of hemorrhage?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frank red bleeding from the surgical site is a significant sign of hemorrhage that warrants immediate attention. It indicates active bleeding that needs to be addressed promptly to prevent further complications.

5. The client is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril), and the nurse plans to educate them about its purpose. Which statement should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clozapine (Clozaril) is an antipsychotic medication that is known to improve cognitive function and thought clarity in individuals with schizophrenia. It primarily helps in managing symptoms related to thought processes rather than focusing on community function, coping with symptoms, or grooming and hygiene.

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