a 30 year old woman presents with fatigue polyuria and polydipsia laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria what is the most likely diagnosi
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1. A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 30-year-old woman with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria is highly suggestive of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to insulin deficiency and subsequent hyperglycemia. The presence of ketonuria indicates the breakdown of fats for energy due to the lack of insulin. In contrast, type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents with gradual onset and is often associated with insulin resistance rather than absolute insulin deficiency. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria and polydipsia but is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism may present with symptoms like fatigue but does not typically cause hyperglycemia or ketonuria.

2. An adolescent patient seeks care in the emergency department after sharing needles for heroin injection with a friend who has hepatitis B. To provide immediate protection from infection, what medication will the nurse administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the immediate need is to provide passive immunity to the adolescent patient. Gamma globulin contains antibodies against hepatitis B, which can offer immediate protection. The hepatitis B vaccine provides active immunity over time but is not immediate. Fresh frozen plasma and corticosteroids are not indicated for immediate protection against hepatitis B infection. Therefore, the correct choice is Gamma globulin as it can provide immediate passive immunity against hepatitis B.

3. A client with a severe head injury is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU). Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An Intracranial Pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg is at the upper limit of normal and may indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is a critical finding in a client with a severe head injury. Elevated ICP can lead to further brain damage and must be addressed promptly to prevent complications such as herniation. Monitoring and managing ICP are crucial in the care of patients with head injuries in the ICU.

4. During the initial assessment of a client with a history of substance abuse admitted for detoxification, which intervention is most important?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client's physical health status is the most critical intervention during the initial assessment of a client with a history of substance abuse admitted for detoxification. This evaluation helps identify and address any immediate health risks, such as withdrawal symptoms or medical complications, to ensure the client's safety and well-being during the detoxification process. Option A, obtaining a detailed substance use history, is important but not the most critical initially. Option B, establishing a trusting nurse-client relationship, is important but assessing physical health takes precedence. Option D, determining the client's readiness for change, is valuable but assessing physical health for immediate risks is the priority.

5. A 35-year-old man presents with difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and regurgitation of undigested food. A barium swallow shows a 'bird beak' appearance of the lower esophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The 'bird beak' appearance on a barium swallow is characteristic of achalasia, a condition where the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax properly. This leads to difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and regurgitation of undigested food, which are hallmark symptoms of achalasia.

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