ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- C. Diabetes insipidus
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 30-year-old woman with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria is highly suggestive of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to insulin deficiency and subsequent hyperglycemia. The presence of ketonuria indicates the breakdown of fats for energy due to the lack of insulin. In contrast, type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents with gradual onset and is often associated with insulin resistance rather than absolute insulin deficiency. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria and polydipsia but is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism may present with symptoms like fatigue but does not typically cause hyperglycemia or ketonuria.
2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is most important to ensure client safety?
- A. Check the client's vital signs before starting the transfusion.
- B. Verify the client's identity and blood compatibility.
- C. Administer the blood with normal saline.
- D. Monitor the client for the first 15 minutes of the transfusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the client's identity and blood compatibility is the most critical step in ensuring client safety during a blood transfusion. This process helps prevent transfusion reactions by confirming that the correct blood product is being administered to the right patient.
3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Platelet count.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
- D. Fibrinogen level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. These tests help assess the clotting time and the desired anticoagulant effect of the medication. Monitoring PT and INR levels is crucial to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications associated with warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice A) measures the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific for monitoring warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice C) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) assesses the amount of fibrinogen in the blood and is not a specific test for monitoring warfarin therapy.
4. Which regimen is most effective for treating H. pylori infection?
- A. Metronidazole, bismuth subsalicylate, amoxicillin for 14 days
- B. Clarithromycin and omeprazole for 14 days
- C. Metronidazole, lansoprazole, and clarithromycin for 14 days
- D. Metronidazole, clarithromycin, and omeprazole for 7 days
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Regimen C, which consists of metronidazole, lansoprazole, and clarithromycin for 14 days, is recommended by the FDA as an effective treatment for H. pylori infection. This regimen has been shown to have a high eradication rate and is a standard recommendation in clinical practice guidelines for the management of H. pylori-related conditions.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- B. Drainage of 75 ml in the first hour post-insertion.
- C. Crepitus around the insertion site.
- D. Fluctuation of the water level in the water seal chamber with respiration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Crepitus (subcutaneous emphysema) around the insertion site can indicate air leakage, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as pneumothorax. This assessment finding suggests that there may be a break in the chest tube system, leading to air entering the pleural space. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory compromise and further complications.
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