Nursing Elites

1. A 55-year-old man presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
• B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Pancreatic cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The constellation of symptoms including fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are classical features of primary biliary cirrhosis.

2. After performing a paracentesis on a client with ascites, 3 liters of fluid are removed. Which assessment parameter is most critical for the nurse to monitor following the procedure?

• A. Pedal pulses.
• B. Breath sounds.
• C. Gag reflex.
• D. Vital signs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following a paracentesis where a significant amount of fluid is removed, it is crucial to monitor the client's vital signs. This helps in detecting any signs of hypovolemia, such as changes in blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate, which could indicate complications post-procedure. Monitoring the vital signs allows for prompt intervention if there are any deviations from the baseline values.

3. A client with liver cirrhosis is prescribed lactulose. What is the purpose of this medication?

• A. To lower blood sugar levels
• B. To reduce ammonia levels
• C. To treat liver inflammation
• D. To improve bile flow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose is prescribed to reduce ammonia levels in clients with liver cirrhosis. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, which in turn traps ammonia in the colon and helps its elimination from the body through stool, thereby reducing the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. Choice A is incorrect because lactulose does not lower blood sugar levels. Choice C is incorrect as lactulose is not used to treat liver inflammation. Choice D is incorrect as lactulose does not improve bile flow.

4. A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, the nurse should monitor for hyperkalemia. Lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia by decreasing aldosterone secretion, which leads to potassium retention in the body. Hyperkalemia is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be closely monitored, as it can have serious consequences such as affecting cardiac function.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. No bruit or thrill over the AV fistula.
• B. Redness at the site of the AV fistula.
• C. Client's complaint of pain at the AV fistula site.
• D. Swelling of the hand on the side of the AV fistula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a chronic kidney disease who has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis, the absence of a bruit (a humming sound) or thrill (vibratory sensation) over the AV fistula indicates a potential occlusion. This finding suggests inadequate blood flow through the AV fistula, which is a critical issue requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as thrombosis or clot formation. Reporting this absence of bruit or thrill promptly to the healthcare provider is essential to ensure timely assessment and management to maintain vascular access for hemodialysis.

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