a client who is receiving long term steroid therapy complains of blurred vision which intervention should the nurse implement first
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam

1. A client who is receiving long-term steroid therapy complains of blurred vision. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately (Option D). Blurred vision in a client on long-term steroid therapy can be a sign of serious conditions like cataracts or glaucoma, which need urgent medical evaluation and management. Instructing the client to use artificial tears (Option A) may help with dry eyes but does not address the underlying cause of blurred vision. Administering an ophthalmic antibiotic (Option B) is not indicated unless there is a specific infection present. Referring the client to an optometrist for an eye exam (Option C) may delay necessary medical intervention by the healthcare provider, who should be involved promptly in this situation.

2. A client with newly diagnosed hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications by a nurse. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Limiting caffeine intake is a positive lifestyle modification for managing hypertension. The statement indicates that the client understands the importance of reducing caffeine intake. Choices A, B, and C all reflect appropriate lifestyle modifications for managing hypertension, indicating good understanding by the client.

3. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia, which requires immediate intervention as it can lead to life-threatening complications. Fever, increased joint pain, and swelling in the joints are common symptoms in clients with rheumatoid arthritis but do not require immediate intervention like addressing hypocalcemia.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.

5. The nurse is assisting the mother of a child with phenylketonuria (PKU) to select foods that are in keeping with the child's dietary restrictions. Which foods are contraindicated for this child?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Foods sweetened with aspartame. Aspartame should not be consumed by a child with PKU because it is converted to phenylalanine in the body, which can be harmful to individuals with PKU. Choice A (Wheat products) is not specifically contraindicated for PKU. Choice C (High-fat foods) and Choice D (High-calorie foods) are not typically restricted in PKU diets unless they contain high levels of phenylalanine.

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