a client who is receiving long term steroid therapy complains of blurred vision which intervention should the nurse implement first
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam

1. A client who is receiving long-term steroid therapy complains of blurred vision. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately (Option D). Blurred vision in a client on long-term steroid therapy can be a sign of serious conditions like cataracts or glaucoma, which need urgent medical evaluation and management. Instructing the client to use artificial tears (Option A) may help with dry eyes but does not address the underlying cause of blurred vision. Administering an ophthalmic antibiotic (Option B) is not indicated unless there is a specific infection present. Referring the client to an optometrist for an eye exam (Option C) may delay necessary medical intervention by the healthcare provider, who should be involved promptly in this situation.

2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is admitted with chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An electrocardiogram should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of CAD and chest pain. An ECG provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity, helping to identify signs of ischemia or a heart attack. While other diagnostic tests like chest X-ray, arterial blood gases, and echocardiogram may also be necessary in the evaluation of chest pain, they do not provide the initial direct assessment of cardiac ischemia that an ECG does.

3. After placing a stethoscope as seen in the picture, the nurse auscultates S1 and S2 heart sounds. To determine if an S3 heart sound is present, what action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse uses the bell of the stethoscope to hear low-pitched sounds such as S3 and S4. To determine if an S3 heart sound is present, the nurse should listen at the same location using the bell first. This allows for the accurate identification of low-pitched sounds. Moving the stethoscope across the sternum (Choice A) or to the mitral site (Choice B) would not be the initial actions to assess for an S3 heart sound. Observing the cardiac telemetry monitor (Choice D) is not relevant for assessing S3 heart sounds, as it does not provide direct auscultation of heart sounds.

4. A client with liver cirrhosis and ascites is admitted with jaundice. Which laboratory value is most concerning to the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl is elevated and concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis, as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion, altered mental status, and even coma. Serum albumin, bilirubin, and prothrombin time are important in liver cirrhosis but are not the most concerning for acute neurological deterioration associated with hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is placed on a protein-restricted diet. Which nutritional goal supports this dietary change?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce production of urea nitrogen (BUN). A protein-restricted diet is essential for clients with chronic renal failure to decrease the production of urea nitrogen, as the kidneys cannot effectively excrete it. This helps in managing the accumulation of waste products in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not directly related to a protein-restricted diet but focuses on managing potassium levels. Choice C is not a direct nutritional goal of a protein-restricted diet but aims at supporting kidney function. Choice D is not a target of a protein-restricted diet but relates more to managing protein loss in the urine.

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