Nursing Elites

1. A client who is receiving long-term steroid therapy complains of blurred vision. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Instruct the client to use artificial tears to lubricate the eyes
• B. Administer an ophthalmic antibiotic as prescribed
• C. Arrange for the client to see an optometrist for an eye exam
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately (Option D). Blurred vision in a client on long-term steroid therapy can be a sign of serious conditions like cataracts or glaucoma, which need urgent medical evaluation and management. Instructing the client to use artificial tears (Option A) may help with dry eyes but does not address the underlying cause of blurred vision. Administering an ophthalmic antibiotic (Option B) is not indicated unless there is a specific infection present. Referring the client to an optometrist for an eye exam (Option C) may delay necessary medical intervention by the healthcare provider, who should be involved promptly in this situation.

2. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit, returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him 'feel bad'. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

• A. Blindness due to cataracts
• B. Acute kidney injury due to glomerular damage
• C. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
• D. Heart block due to myocardial damage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Stroke secondary to hemorrhage.' Uncontrolled hypertension can lead to the weakening of blood vessels in the brain, increasing the risk of a stroke due to hemorrhage. This can result in serious neurological deficits or even death. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while hypertension can have various complications including vision changes, kidney damage, and heart problems, the most immediate and severe risk associated with uncontrolled hypertension is a stroke from cerebral hemorrhage.

3. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Confusion and altered mental status
• B. Increased abdominal girth
• C. Yellowing of the skin
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are the most concerning clinical findings in a client with hepatic encephalopathy. These symptoms indicate worsening liver function and potential neurological complications, requiring immediate medical attention. Increased abdominal girth may suggest ascites, yellowing of the skin can indicate jaundice, and peripheral edema may be related to fluid retention, but in the context of hepatic encephalopathy, confusion and altered mental status take precedence due to the risk of rapid deterioration and the need for prompt management.

4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Blood glucose level of 300 mg/dl
• C. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Positive urine ketones

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L. A low serum potassium level in a client with DKA is concerning due to the risk of cardiac arrhythmias. Kussmaul respirations (choice A) are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis in DKA. A blood glucose level of 300 mg/dl (choice B) is elevated but expected in DKA. Positive urine ketones (choice D) are a classic finding in DKA and not as concerning as low serum potassium.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.5
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Headache
• D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.

Similar Questions