Nursing Elites

1. A client who is 8 hours postpartum asks the nurse if she will need to receive Rh immune globulin. The client is gravida 2, para 2, and her blood type is AB negative. The newborn’s blood type is B positive. Which of the following statements is appropriate?

• A. You only need to receive Rh immune globulin if you have a positive blood type.
• B. You should receive Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery.
• C. Both you and your baby should receive Rh immune globulin at your 6-week appointment.
• D. Immune globulin is not necessary since this is your second pregnancy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rh-negative mothers who give birth to an Rh-positive baby should receive Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery to prevent the development of antibodies in future pregnancies. Choice A is incorrect because Rh-negative individuals are the ones who require Rh immune globulin. Choice C is incorrect as the administration of Rh immune globulin is time-sensitive and not typically scheduled for a 6-week appointment. Choice D is incorrect because Rh immune globulin is necessary to prevent sensitization regardless of the number of pregnancies.

2. A nurse is planning care for a newly admitted adolescent with bacterial meningitis. What intervention should the nurse include?

• A. Initiate droplet precautions
• B. Assist the client to a supine position
• C. Perform a Glasgow Coma Scale every 24 hours
• D. Recommend prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a newly admitted adolescent with bacterial meningitis is to initiate droplet precautions. Bacterial meningitis is highly contagious, and droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of infection. Assisting the client to a supine position (Choice B) is not directly related to managing bacterial meningitis. Performing a Glasgow Coma Scale every 24 hours (Choice C) may be important to assess the client's neurological status but is not the priority intervention in preventing the spread of infection. Recommending prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family (Choice D) is not a standard practice in the care of a patient with bacterial meningitis.

3. A nurse is planning to administer an injection of morphine to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure client safety?

• A. Instruct the client to take a deep breath during administration.
• B. Administer the medication over 30 seconds.
• C. Verify the client’s pain level.
• D. Have naloxone available in case of respiratory depression.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to have naloxone available in case of respiratory depression. Morphine is an opioid that can lead to respiratory depression, especially in higher doses. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose and should be readily accessible when administering morphine to reverse respiratory depression if it occurs. Instructing the client to take a deep breath during administration (choice A) is not directly related to ensuring safety in this scenario. Administering the medication over 30 seconds (choice B) may help with the comfort of the client but does not address the potential risk of respiratory depression. Verifying the client's pain level (choice C) is important but not the primary action to ensure safety when administering morphine.

4. A client has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Prepare the client for a thoracentesis
• C. Elevate the client’s lower extremities
• D. Administer anticoagulant therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism can lead to impaired gas exchange, causing hypoxemia. Administering oxygen helps to maintain adequate oxygenation levels. Thoracentesis is not indicated for a pulmonary embolism, as it is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space, not a treatment for embolism. Elevating the client's lower extremities is not a priority in the management of a pulmonary embolism. Administering anticoagulant therapy is important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation, but it is not the first intervention. Oxygen administration takes precedence to address the immediate oxygenation needs of the client.

5. A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Atropine
• D. Diazepam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is administered to reverse the effects of opioids. It is critical to have Naloxone available when opioids are administered during labor, especially close to delivery. Epinephrine is not used to counteract the effects of opioids but rather for managing severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest. Atropine is used for specific conditions like bradycardia, not to counteract opioid effects. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, not for reversing opioid effects.

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