a client who is 8 hours postpartum asks the nurse if she will need to receive rh immune globulin the client is gravida 2 para 2 and her blood type is
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A client who is 8 hours postpartum asks the nurse if she will need to receive Rh immune globulin. The client is gravida 2, para 2, and her blood type is AB negative. The newborn’s blood type is B positive. Which of the following statements is appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rh-negative mothers who give birth to an Rh-positive baby should receive Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery to prevent the development of antibodies in future pregnancies. Choice A is incorrect because Rh-negative individuals are the ones who require Rh immune globulin. Choice C is incorrect as the administration of Rh immune globulin is time-sensitive and not typically scheduled for a 6-week appointment. Choice D is incorrect because Rh immune globulin is necessary to prevent sensitization regardless of the number of pregnancies.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine). Vitamin B6 is often used to treat nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, including hyperemesis gravidarum. It is considered safe for use in pregnant clients. Digoxin (Choice A) is a medication used for heart conditions, not for hyperemesis gravidarum. Calcium gluconate (Choice B) is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not nausea and vomiting in pregnancy. Propranolol (Choice D) is a beta-blocker used for conditions like hypertension and anxiety, not for hyperemesis gravidarum.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following diets should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with chronic kidney disease often have difficulty regulating potassium levels in their blood. A potassium-restricted diet helps prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication in these clients. High sodium diet (Choice A) is typically avoided in kidney disease to prevent fluid retention and high blood pressure. High phosphorus diet (Choice C) is usually restricted in kidney disease as elevated phosphorus levels can lead to bone and heart problems. While protein is important for overall health, a high protein diet (Choice D) can put extra strain on the kidneys and is usually limited in chronic kidney disease.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is commonly prescribed to manage hypertension and heart failure. It helps reduce the workload on the heart and prevent fluid retention. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A focuses on a respiratory rate, which is not specific to heart failure management. Option B suggests administering a large IV bolus of fluid, which can worsen heart failure by increasing fluid volume. Option D addresses the pulse rate, which is not a typical parameter to monitor for heart failure specifically.

5. A client newly prescribed sertraline is being taught by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B, 'I might have trouble sleeping when I start this medication,' indicates understanding because insomnia is a common side effect of sertraline, especially when initiating the medication. This statement shows the client comprehends a potential adverse effect and is prepared for it. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking sertraline with or without meals does not significantly affect its efficacy. There is no specific contraindication about drinking orange juice while on sertraline. Feeling better immediately after starting the medication is unlikely as sertraline usually takes some time to exert its therapeutic effects.

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