a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following a cesarean birth which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions
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PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A client who has undergone a cesarean birth is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a cesarean birth, it is important for the client to follow specific instructions for optimal recovery. Limiting stair climbing reduces strain on the incision site, aiding in healing (Choice A). Avoiding lifting anything heavier than the newborn prevents stress on the incision, promoting recovery (Choice B). Using a pillow to support the abdomen during coughing or sneezing helps reduce discomfort and protect the incision, preventing sudden movements or strain (Choice C). Therefore, all the options provided are crucial post-cesarean birth instructions to ensure proper healing and recovery. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of post-cesarean care, making Option D the correct answer.

2. A nurse is admitting a client who is in labor and at 38 weeks of gestation to the maternal newborn unit. The client has a history of herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2). Which of the following questions is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask the client in this scenario is whether they have any active lesions. Active lesions from HSV-2 during labor increase the risk of neonatal transmission, which would necessitate a cesarean section to prevent the infant from contracting the virus during delivery. Asking about the presence of active lesions is crucial to determine the appropriate management and precautions needed to protect the newborn. Choices A, B, and D are not as pertinent in this situation and do not directly address the potential risk of neonatal transmission of HSV-2.

3. A nurse is admitting a client who has suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A distended, board-like abdomen is a concerning sign indicating the possibility of a ruptured appendix and peritonitis, which are medical emergencies. Reporting this finding immediately is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, an elevated WBC count, could indicate infection but is not as urgent as the risk of a ruptured appendix. Choice C, rebound tenderness over McBurney’s point, is a classic sign of appendicitis but does not indicate an immediate threat like a possible rupture. Choice D, a slightly elevated temperature, is a nonspecific finding and not as critical as the risk of peritonitis associated with a distended, board-like abdomen.

4. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.

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