Nursing Elites

1. A nurse overhears two assistive personnel (APs) discussing a client in a hospital cafeteria, using the client’s name and discussing details of the diagnosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Report the APs' behavior to the supervisor
• B. Complete an incident report regarding the APs' conversation
• C. Provide the APs with written documentation on confidentiality
• D. Tell the APs to discontinue their conversation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to tell the APs to discontinue their conversation. By stopping the conversation immediately, the nurse addresses the breach of client confidentiality on the spot. This action is crucial to protect the client's privacy and confidentiality. While further steps such as reporting the behavior or providing education on confidentiality may be necessary, the immediate priority is to stop the inappropriate discussion. Reporting the behavior to the supervisor or completing an incident report can come after the immediate issue is addressed. Providing written documentation on confidentiality may be helpful but is not the most urgent action needed in this situation.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of digoxin. Which of the following should the nurse do first?

• A. Assess blood pressure
• B. Check heart rate
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Review the medication order

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the heart rate first before administering digoxin. Digoxin is a medication that directly affects the heart, so it is crucial to ensure that the heart rate is within the appropriate range before giving the dose. If the heart rate is below 60 bpm, administering digoxin could lead to toxicity. Assessing blood pressure (Choice A) is important but not the first priority when preparing to administer digoxin. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice C) is also crucial for patients on digoxin, but it is not the initial step. Reviewing the medication order (Choice D) is necessary but can be done after checking the heart rate.

3. When a nurse is interviewing a client who is requesting oral contraceptives, which finding in the client’s history is a contraindication to combined oral contraceptives?

• A. Thyroid disease
• B. Allergy to penicillin
• C. Impaired liver function
• D. Abnormal blood glucose levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired liver function. Impaired liver function is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives because they are metabolized in the liver. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Thyroid disease, allergy to penicillin, and abnormal blood glucose levels are not contraindications to combined oral contraceptives.

4. A nurse is teaching a client about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening of colorectal cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. “Your provider will use stool samples from your bowel movement to perform the test.”
• B. “Your provider will prescribe a stimulant laxative prior to the procedure to cleanse the bowel.”
• C. “You should begin biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at 50 years old.”
• D. “You should avoid taking corticosteroids prior to testing.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid corticosteroids and vitamin C prior to testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect because stool samples from bowel movements, not from digital rectal examinations, are used for FOBT. Choice B is incorrect because a stimulant laxative is not typically prescribed before FOBT; rather, the client is instructed to follow specific dietary restrictions. Choice C is incorrect because biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening usually begins at 50 years old, not 40.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not being adequately perfused, leading to reduced urine production. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia, not directly related to cardiac output. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) can be caused by medications or sympathetic nervous system stimulation but are not specific to decreased cardiac output.

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