a nurse overhears two assistive personnel aps discussing a client in a hospital cafeteria using the clients name and discussing details of the diagnos
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A nurse overhears two assistive personnel (APs) discussing a client in a hospital cafeteria, using the client’s name and discussing details of the diagnosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to tell the APs to discontinue their conversation. By stopping the conversation immediately, the nurse addresses the breach of client confidentiality on the spot. This action is crucial to protect the client's privacy and confidentiality. While further steps such as reporting the behavior or providing education on confidentiality may be necessary, the immediate priority is to stop the inappropriate discussion. Reporting the behavior to the supervisor or completing an incident report can come after the immediate issue is addressed. Providing written documentation on confidentiality may be helpful but is not the most urgent action needed in this situation.

2. When assessing a client with a small bowel obstruction, what finding should a nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High-pitched bowel sounds are often heard early in a small bowel obstruction due to increased peristalsis as the bowel tries to overcome the blockage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Abdominal distention is more commonly associated with large bowel obstructions, while large bowel movements and copious vomiting are not typical findings in small bowel obstructions.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When administering warfarin, it is crucial to verify the patient's INR levels. INR monitoring is essential to ensure that the patient is receiving the correct dose of warfarin for their condition and to minimize the risk of bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because administering warfarin with food, monitoring blood glucose levels, and assessing liver function are not directly related to the safe administration and monitoring of warfarin therapy.

4. A client is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The contractions are occurring every 45 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 170-180 beats/min. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When contractions occur every 45 seconds with a high fetal heart rate, it indicates uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress. In this situation, the oxytocin infusion should be discontinued immediately to prevent further complications. Increasing or maintaining the infusion would worsen the hyperstimulation and distress. Decreasing the infusion may not be sufficient to address the current situation and could still lead to complications.

5. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.

Similar Questions

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