ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse overhears two assistive personnel (APs) discussing a client in a hospital cafeteria, using the client’s name and discussing details of the diagnosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Report the APs' behavior to the supervisor
- B. Complete an incident report regarding the APs' conversation
- C. Provide the APs with written documentation on confidentiality
- D. Tell the APs to discontinue their conversation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to tell the APs to discontinue their conversation. By stopping the conversation immediately, the nurse addresses the breach of client confidentiality on the spot. This action is crucial to protect the client's privacy and confidentiality. While further steps such as reporting the behavior or providing education on confidentiality may be necessary, the immediate priority is to stop the inappropriate discussion. Reporting the behavior to the supervisor or completing an incident report can come after the immediate issue is addressed. Providing written documentation on confidentiality may be helpful but is not the most urgent action needed in this situation.
2. When educating a patient about gabapentin use, what should the nurse include?
- A. It can cause sedation
- B. It can be taken with alcohol
- C. It is a pain reliever
- D. It has no side effects
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause sedation.' Gabapentin is known to cause sedation, and patients should be advised about this side effect, especially regarding activities that require alertness. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin should not be taken with alcohol as it can increase the risk of central nervous system depression. Choice C is incorrect because while gabapentin is used to treat nerve pain, it is not classified as a traditional pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects, such as dizziness, drowsiness, and fatigue.
3. A nurse is teaching about measures to promote sleep with insomnia. What statement indicates understanding?
- A. Take naps throughout the day
- B. Reduce fluid intake 2 hours before bedtime
- C. Drink coffee to help stay awake
- D. Increase screen time before bed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Reducing fluid intake before bedtime helps prevent interruptions in sleep due to bathroom visits, which is crucial for individuals with insomnia. Taking naps throughout the day (choice A) may disrupt nighttime sleep. Drinking coffee (choice C) is counterproductive as it contains caffeine, which can interfere with falling asleep. Increasing screen time before bed (choice D) can negatively impact sleep quality due to the stimulating effects of screens.
4. A client has been prescribed metoclopramide. Which of the following should the nurse include in client education regarding this medication?
- A. Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck.
- B. Take the medication only if you feel nauseous.
- C. Avoid drinking any fluids while taking this medication.
- D. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck.' Metoclopramide can cause extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness and muscle spasms, particularly of the face and neck. These symptoms should be reported to the provider immediately. Choice B is incorrect because metoclopramide is not meant to be taken only when feeling nauseous; it is used to treat nausea and vomiting. Choice C is incorrect because it is important to stay hydrated while taking metoclopramide. Choice D is incorrect because metoclopramide is usually taken before meals to improve gastric emptying, not necessarily on an empty stomach.
5. A nurse should teach which of the following clients requiring crutches about how to use a three-point gait?
- A. A client who is able to bear full weight on both lower extremities.
- B. A client who has bilateral leg braces due to paralysis of the lower extremities.
- C. A client who has a right femur fracture with no weight bearing on the affected leg.
- D. A client who has bilateral knee replacements with partial weight bearing on both legs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a three-point gait is used when the client can bear full weight on one foot and uses crutches and the uninvolved leg to ambulate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not meet the criteria for using a three-point gait. Choice A states that the client can bear full weight on both lower extremities, which does not require a three-point gait. Choice B mentions bilateral leg braces due to paralysis, which would not involve using a three-point gait. Choice D describes a client with bilateral knee replacements with partial weight bearing, which also does not align with the use of a three-point gait.
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