a nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled for electromyography emg which of the following information should the nurse include in the
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PN ATI Capstone Adult Medical-Surgical 1 Quiz

1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled for electromyography (EMG). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electromyography (EMG) procedure, small needle electrodes are inserted into the muscles to identify muscle weakness and evaluate local nerve responses. This information is crucial for the client to know beforehand. Choice A is incorrect because radioisotopes are not used in EMG procedures. Choice B is incorrect because flushing is not a common occurrence during EMG. Choice C is incorrect because claustrophobia is more relevant to MRI or CT scans, not EMG procedures.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of iron supplement. Which of the following should the nurse do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer it on an empty stomach. Iron supplements are best absorbed on an empty stomach to enhance their absorption. It is important to avoid giving them with milk or dairy products as these can inhibit iron absorption. Checking blood pressure and monitoring for allergic reactions are not directly related to the administration of iron supplements and are not the primary considerations in this case.

3. A nurse is reviewing information about advance directives with a newly admitted client. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because having a living will is a legal document that outlines a client's wishes when they are unable to make decisions, indicating a good understanding of advance directives. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't mention a specific document like a living will. Choice C is incorrect because advance directives, like a living will, can be legally binding. Choice D is incorrect because planning for advance directives should ideally be done before a person becomes critically ill.

4. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

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