ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Adult Medical-Surgical 1 Quiz
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled for electromyography (EMG). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. “You will receive a fixed dose of radioisotope 2 hours before the procedure.”
- B. “Momentary flushing may occur at the beginning of the procedure.”
- C. “You should inform your provider if you are claustrophobic.”
- D. “You should expect insertion of small needle electrodes into the muscles.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electromyography (EMG) procedure, small needle electrodes are inserted into the muscles to identify muscle weakness and evaluate local nerve responses. This information is crucial for the client to know beforehand. Choice A is incorrect because radioisotopes are not used in EMG procedures. Choice B is incorrect because flushing is not a common occurrence during EMG. Choice C is incorrect because claustrophobia is more relevant to MRI or CT scans, not EMG procedures.
2. A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Oxytocin
- B. Nifedipine
- C. Dinoprostone
- D. Misoprostol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nifedipine is the correct choice in this scenario. It is a calcium channel blocker that helps suppress uterine contractions and halt preterm labor. Nifedipine is commonly used to manage preterm labor in pregnant women by relaxing the smooth muscle of the uterus. Oxytocin (Choice A) is used to induce or augment labor, not to inhibit contractions. Dinoprostone (Choice C) and Misoprostol (Choice D) are prostaglandins used for cervical ripening and induction of labor, not for stopping preterm labor.
3. While providing education about the use of lorazepam, which of the following should be included?
- A. It can cause dependency
- B. It can be taken with alcohol
- C. It has no side effects
- D. It is a stimulant
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause dependency.' Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine known to cause dependency, so it is crucial for clients to be informed about this potential risk. Choice B is incorrect as combining lorazepam with alcohol can lead to increased sedation and other adverse effects. Choice C is incorrect because lorazepam, like any medication, can have side effects such as drowsiness, dizziness, or confusion. Choice D is also incorrect as lorazepam is a sedative-hypnotic medication, not a stimulant.
4. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse look for?
- A. Muscle weakness
- B. Weight gain
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Increased thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a classic sign of hypokalemia. Potassium plays a crucial role in muscle function, and low potassium levels can lead to muscle weakness. Weight gain, elevated blood pressure, and increased thirst are not typically associated with hypokalemia. Weight gain can be seen in conditions like fluid retention, elevated blood pressure can result from various causes, and increased thirst may be a symptom of conditions like diabetes.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 12 hours post-surgery. The client has an indwelling urinary catheter, and the nurse notes a urinary output of 15 mL/hr. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Irrigate the catheter
- B. Assess the patency of the catheter
- C. Increase the IV fluid rate
- D. Notify the provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should first assess the patency of the catheter to ensure that the low output is not caused by a blockage. It is crucial to rule out any obstructions before considering other interventions. Irrigating the catheter without verifying patency may worsen the situation if there is a blockage. Increasing IV fluid rate may not address the underlying issue if the problem lies with the catheter. Notifying the provider should come after ensuring the catheter's patency.
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