a nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled for electromyography emg which of the following information should the nurse include in the
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PN ATI Capstone Adult Medical-Surgical 1 Quiz

1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled for electromyography (EMG). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electromyography (EMG) procedure, small needle electrodes are inserted into the muscles to identify muscle weakness and evaluate local nerve responses. This information is crucial for the client to know beforehand. Choice A is incorrect because radioisotopes are not used in EMG procedures. Choice B is incorrect because flushing is not a common occurrence during EMG. Choice C is incorrect because claustrophobia is more relevant to MRI or CT scans, not EMG procedures.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilirubin 4 mg/dL. A bilirubin level of 4 mg/dL is elevated for a newborn and requires monitoring and potential intervention to prevent complications such as jaundice and kernicterus. Elevated bilirubin levels in newborns can lead to serious neurological consequences. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting to the provider. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated bilirubin level to the provider for further evaluation and management.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a client. Which of the following findings indicates a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A TPN solution with an oily appearance and a layer of fat on top indicates that the solution is 'cracked' and should not be used as it may have separated or deteriorated. This finding suggests a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering. Options B, C, and D are normal aspects of TPN administration. Option B confirms the presence of essential components in the TPN solution, option C provides information about the preparation time, and option D ensures proper identification and matching of the TPN with the correct client.

4. Before an amniocentesis, what action by the client will need to be completed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before an amniocentesis, the client should empty their bladder. This is necessary to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. A full bladder can be in the path of the needle, increasing the risk of injury. Increasing fluid intake (choice A) is not necessary before an amniocentesis. Avoiding eating for 12 hours (choice C) is not a standard preparation for an amniocentesis. Taking a sedative (choice D) is not routinely required for this procedure.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.

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