ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A newly licensed nurse tells a charge nurse he is unsure about accepting telephone medication prescriptions. Which of the following providers should the charge nurse identify as having the legal ability to give telephone medication prescriptions?
- A. Nurse midwives
- B. Physical therapists
- C. Pharmacists
- D. Physician assistants
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Physician assistants are healthcare providers who are licensed to prescribe medications. They have the legal ability to give telephone orders for medications. Nurse midwives primarily focus on providing prenatal care and assisting during labor and delivery. Physical therapists specialize in rehabilitation services. Pharmacists dispense medications and provide medication counseling. Therefore, among the options provided, physician assistants are the correct choice for giving telephone medication prescriptions.
2. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a patient who has extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest. While planning the patient’s care, the nurse should identify which of the following risks as the priority for assessment and intervention?
- A. Infection
- B. Airway obstruction
- C. Fluid imbalance
- D. Pain management
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient has extensive burns involving the head, neck, and chest, the priority concern is airway obstruction. The proximity of the burns to the airway can lead to swelling and compromise the patient's ability to breathe. In this situation, ensuring a clear airway and adequate oxygenation takes precedence over other risks such as infection, fluid imbalance, or pain management. While these are also important considerations in burn care, the immediate threat to the patient's life from airway compromise makes it the priority for assessment and intervention.
3. A healthcare professional is completing a nutritional assessment on a client and measures body mass index (BMI). Which of the following readings correlates with a BMI of an overweight client?
- A. 18.5
- B. 24.9
- C. 25
- D. 32
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A BMI of 25-29.9 is considered overweight. Therefore, a BMI of 25 correlates with an overweight client. A BMI of 18.5-24.9 indicates a healthy weight. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they fall into the healthy weight or obese categories, not overweight.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medication class, benzodiazepines. The nurse would use caution when administering benzodiazepines to which of the clients below?
- A. A client with glaucoma
- B. A client with renal failure
- C. A client with hypertension
- D. A client with insomnia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Benzodiazepines can increase intraocular pressure, which is why they must be used cautiously in patients with glaucoma. In clients with this condition, benzodiazepines can potentially worsen symptoms and lead to further complications involving the eyes. Therefore, administering benzodiazepines to a client with glaucoma should be done with caution. Choices B, C, and D are not directly contraindicated with benzodiazepines, making them less likely to cause harm compared to administering to a client with glaucoma.
5. A child is prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take with meals
- B. Take at bedtime
- C. Take with a glass of milk
- D. Take with a glass of orange juice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to take ferrous sulfate with a glass of orange juice. Vitamin C, found in orange juice, enhances iron absorption. Taking iron with milk (choice C) is not recommended as it reduces iron absorption. Taking it with meals (choice A) can hinder its absorption due to other food components. Taking it at bedtime (choice B) doesn't affect absorption but might cause gastrointestinal upset in some individuals.
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