a nurse is teaching a client who is at 24 weeks of gestation about the signs of preterm labor which of the following should the nurse include
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is being taught about the signs of preterm labor. Which of the following should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regular contractions. Regular contractions before 37 weeks of gestation are a significant sign of preterm labor. It is essential for clients to be aware of this symptom and report it promptly to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sudden weight loss, shortness of breath, and vaginal spotting are not typical signs of preterm labor. Teaching clients about the specific signs of preterm labor can help in early detection and intervention, ultimately improving outcomes for both the client and the baby.

2. A nurse is caring for an infant who has a prescription for continuous pulse oximetry. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to move the probe site every 3 hours. This action helps prevent skin breakdown and ensures more accurate monitoring of oxygen saturation. Placing the infant under a radiant warmer (choice A) is unnecessary and not related to pulse oximetry. Heating the skin before placing the probe (choice C) can lead to burns and is not recommended. Placing the sensor on the index finger (choice D) is not appropriate for continuous monitoring in infants.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is about to start hemodialysis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to reduce potassium intake. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit potassium intake to prevent hyperkalemia, as the kidneys may struggle to remove excess potassium. Increasing protein intake between dialysis sessions (Choice A) is not recommended as it can increase urea production, adding to the workload of the kidneys. Avoiding iron supplements (Choice C) is not necessary unless iron levels are high. Expecting weight gain after each dialysis session (Choice D) is incorrect as patients typically experience weight loss due to fluid removal during dialysis.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is starting to take carbidopa/levodopa to treat Parkinson’s disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide is that the medication can cause the client's urine to turn a dark color, which is a harmless effect of carbidopa/levodopa. This is due to the metabolites of levodopa. Immediate relief is not expected after taking the medication because it may take weeks to months to achieve the full therapeutic effect. Taking the medication with a high-protein food is not recommended as protein can interfere with the absorption of levodopa. Skipping a dose of the medication if the client experiences dizziness is incorrect as dizziness may be a side effect of the medication, and doses should not be skipped without consulting a healthcare provider.

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