ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A client who has osteoporosis is being discharged with a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- C. Take the medication with food.
- D. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water to prevent esophageal irritation. Additionally, the client should remain upright for 30 minutes after taking it to prevent potential adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken at bedtime, but rather in the morning on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food. Choice D is incorrect because the client should remain upright, not lie down, for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
2. A client is receiving ferrous sulfate. Which of the following should be monitored?
- A. Serum potassium levels
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Liver function tests
- D. Blood glucose levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin levels. Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia by increasing the body's iron stores. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial as it reflects the effectiveness of the treatment in improving the client's anemia. Serum potassium levels (Choice A) are typically not directly affected by ferrous sulfate. Liver function tests (Choice C) and blood glucose levels (Choice D) are not routinely monitored when a client is receiving ferrous sulfate unless there are specific indications or pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.
3. A nurse is updating a plan of care after evaluating a client who has dysphagia. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Have the client lie down after meals
- B. Encourage the client to speak while eating
- C. Have the client sit upright for 1 hour following meals
- D. Offer thin liquids with meals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dysphagia is to have them sit upright for 1 hour following meals. This position facilitates swallowing and reduces the risk of aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because having the client lie down after meals can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice B is incorrect as talking while eating can lead to choking. Choice D is incorrect as thin liquids may be harder for a client with dysphagia to swallow safely.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. The healthcare provider should identify what as a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?
- A. Advanced age
- B. Urinary incontinence
- C. Regular skin assessments
- D. Adequate hydration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a significant risk factor for skin breakdown and pressure injuries. It can lead to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants, increasing the susceptibility to pressure injuries. Advanced age (Choice A) is a risk factor due to changes in skin integrity and decreased tissue viability, but it is not as direct a risk factor as urinary incontinence. Regular skin assessments (Choice C) are important for early detection and prevention but are not a risk factor themselves. Adequate hydration (Choice D) is essential for overall skin health but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries.
5. A client who gave birth 12 hours ago is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing decreased cardiac output?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Flushed face
- C. Hypotension
- D. Polyuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hypotension is a key indicator of decreased cardiac output, especially in the context of postpartum hemorrhage, which can lead to significant fluid volume loss and compromise perfusion. In this scenario, the excessive vaginal bleeding could lead to hypovolemia, resulting in decreased cardiac output and subsequent hypotension. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output in this scenario, as the body often compensates for decreased cardiac output by increasing heart rate. A flushed face (choice B) may indicate vasodilation but is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Polyuria (choice D) is excessive urination and is not a specific indicator of decreased cardiac output in this context.
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