Nursing Elites

1. A home health nurse is providing teaching to a patient who has a new diagnosis of a gastric ulcer and a new prescription for sucralfate oral suspension. What statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take this medicine with meals.
• B. I will take this medicine right before bed.
• C. I will take this medicine 1 hour before meals and at bedtime.
• D. I will take this medicine only when I have symptoms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals, and at bedtime to coat the ulcer and protect it from stomach acid. Choice A is incorrect because taking it with meals may reduce its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect as it should not be taken right before bed. Choice D is incorrect as sucralfate should be taken regularly as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur.

2. When caring for a client prescribed azithromycin, what should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Signs of diarrhea
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Serum electrolytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor signs of diarrhea when a client is prescribed azithromycin. Azithromycin is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, particularly diarrhea. Monitoring for diarrhea is crucial to assess the client's response to the medication and to prevent complications such as dehydration. Monitoring liver function (choice A), blood glucose levels (choice C), and serum electrolytes (choice D) are not typically indicated specifically for clients prescribed azithromycin unless there are other specific reasons or conditions that warrant such monitoring.

3. A nurse in an emergency department is serving on a committee that is reviewing the facility protocol for disaster readiness. The nurse should recommend that the protocol include which of the following as a clinical manifestation of smallpox?

• A. Bloody diarrhea
• B. Ptosis of the eyelids
• C. Descending paralysis
• D. Rash in the mouth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Rash in the mouth.' Smallpox presents with a distinctive rash that typically begins in the mouth and spreads to the rest of the body, developing into pustules. This rash is a key clinical manifestation of smallpox. This infectious disease is characterized by the rash, fever, and other systemic symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not associated with smallpox. Bloody diarrhea, ptosis of the eyelids, and descending paralysis are not typical clinical manifestations of smallpox.

4. A client diagnosed with pneumonia is receiving oxygen therapy at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following interventions is most important?

• A. Encourage fluid intake.
• B. Monitor oxygen saturation levels.
• C. Change the oxygen tubing daily.
• D. Assist with frequent position changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation levels is the most important intervention in this scenario. It ensures that the client is receiving adequate oxygenation, which is crucial for a client with pneumonia. By monitoring saturation levels, the nurse can promptly identify any oxygenation issues and adjust the oxygen delivery if necessary. Encouraging fluid intake, changing oxygen tubing daily, and assisting with frequent position changes are also important aspects of care for a client with pneumonia, but they are not as critical as monitoring oxygen saturation levels in ensuring immediate respiratory support.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

• A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
• B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
• C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

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