Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The client has a history of cocaine use. The nurse should identify that the client is likely experiencing which of the following complications?

• A. Abruptio placentae
• B. Hydatidiform mole
• C. Preterm labor
• D. Placenta previa

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in a client with a history of cocaine use suggest abruptio placentae, where the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely, posing serious risks to both mother and fetus. Hydatidiform mole is characterized by abnormal trophoblastic tissue growth, not continuous pain and bleeding. Preterm labor is premature contractions leading to birth before 37 weeks gestation. Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix, presenting with painless vaginal bleeding.

2. A client is being educated about the use of spironolactone. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

• A. Avoid potassium-rich foods
• B. Take the medication with food
• C. Monitor for signs of toxicity
• D. Discontinue the medication if potassium levels rise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid potassium-rich foods. Spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. To prevent this complication, clients taking spironolactone should avoid potassium-rich foods. Choice B is incorrect because spironolactone can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use, as toxicity monitoring is not a specific concern with this medication. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing the medication solely based on elevated potassium levels may not be necessary; instead, dosage adjustments or potassium restriction are often more appropriate.

3. A nurse is performing a focused assessment on a client who has a history of COPD and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Flaring of the nostrils
• B. Normal respiratory rate
• C. Clear lung sounds
• D. Decreased work of breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flaring of the nostrils indicates increased respiratory effort, common in clients with dyspnea due to COPD. In COPD, the airways are narrowed, causing difficulty in breathing, leading to increased work of breathing. Normal respiratory rate and clear lung sounds are less likely findings in a client with COPD experiencing dyspnea. Decreased work of breathing is not expected in this situation as COPD typically results in increased work of breathing.

4. A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client who has a new ileostomy. The nurse should recognize that the teaching has been effective when the client states:

• A. I will make sure my medications are enteric-coated
• B. My stoma will drain liquid continuously
• C. I will change my pouch system every two weeks
• D. My stoma size will stay the same after it heals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a client with an ileostomy states that their stoma will drain liquid continuously, it indicates an understanding of the expected outcome. In an ileostomy, the stoma continuously drains liquid stool as it bypasses the large intestine where water is absorbed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because ensuring medications are enteric-coated, changing the pouch system every two weeks, and expecting the stoma size to remain the same after healing are not accurate statements related to an ileostomy.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

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