Nursing Elites

1. A client is undergoing chemotherapy and is at risk for developing thrombocytopenia. What precaution should the nurse teach the client to minimize the risk of bleeding?

• A. Use a soft-bristled toothbrush.
• B. Engage in daily aerobic exercise.
• C. Take aspirin for headaches.
• D. Use an electric razor for shaving.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a soft-bristled toothbrush is essential for clients at risk of thrombocytopenia to prevent gum bleeding, as their platelet counts may be low. Vigorous brushing with a hard-bristled toothbrush can injure the gums, leading to bleeding, which can be exacerbated in clients with low platelets. Therefore, advising the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush is a crucial precaution to minimize the risk of bleeding.

2. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria strongly suggests type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes typically presents with acute symptoms due to absolute insulin deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Conversely, type 2 diabetes often presents more insidiously and is associated with relative insulin deficiency and insulin resistance. Diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, is due to problems with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism, while also presenting with symptoms like fatigue, does not typically manifest with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most likely diagnosis in this case is type 1 diabetes mellitus.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. No bruit or thrill over the AV fistula.
• B. Redness at the site of the AV fistula.
• C. Client's complaint of pain at the AV fistula site.
• D. Swelling of the hand on the side of the AV fistula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a chronic kidney disease who has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis, the absence of a bruit (a humming sound) or thrill (vibratory sensation) over the AV fistula indicates a potential occlusion. This finding suggests inadequate blood flow through the AV fistula, which is a critical issue requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as thrombosis or clot formation. Reporting this absence of bruit or thrill promptly to the healthcare provider is essential to ensure timely assessment and management to maintain vascular access for hemodialysis.

4. A patient with tuberculosis is started on rifampin. What advice should the nurse provide?

• A. Limit intake of green leafy vegetables.
• B. Expect orange-red discoloration of body fluids.
• C. Avoid exposure to sunlight.
• D. Take the medication with antacids.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct advice for a patient starting rifampin is to expect orange-red discoloration of body fluids. Rifampin can cause harmless orange-red discoloration of body fluids, which may include urine, sweat, saliva, and tears. It is important for the patient to be aware of this side effect as it can stain clothing and contact lenses. Limiting the intake of green leafy vegetables is not necessary with rifampin. Avoiding exposure to sunlight is more commonly associated with other medications like tetracyclines, not rifampin. Taking rifampin with antacids is not recommended as antacids can reduce the absorption of rifampin, decreasing its effectiveness in treating tuberculosis.

5. A client has developed hepatic encephalopathy secondary to cirrhosis and is receiving care on the medical unit. The client's current medication regimen includes lactulose four times daily. What desired outcome should the nurse relate to this pharmacologic intervention?

• A. Two to three soft bowel movements daily
• B. Significant increase in appetite and food intake
• C. Absence of nausea and vomiting
• D. Absence of blood or mucus in stool

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lactulose is used in hepatic encephalopathy to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting bowel movements. The desired outcome of lactulose therapy is typically two to three soft bowel movements daily, which helps in eliminating excess ammonia from the body, thus improving the client's condition.

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