a client is undergoing chemotherapy and is at risk for developing thrombocytopenia what precaution should the nurse teach the client to minimize the r
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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet

1. A client is undergoing chemotherapy and is at risk for developing thrombocytopenia. What precaution should the nurse teach the client to minimize the risk of bleeding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a soft-bristled toothbrush is essential for clients at risk of thrombocytopenia to prevent gum bleeding, as their platelet counts may be low. Vigorous brushing with a hard-bristled toothbrush can injure the gums, leading to bleeding, which can be exacerbated in clients with low platelets. Therefore, advising the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush is a crucial precaution to minimize the risk of bleeding.

2. A client with hepatic encephalopathy exhibits confusion, difficulty arousing from sleep, and rigid extremities. Based on these clinical findings, what stage of hepatic encephalopathy should the nurse document?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stage 3 hepatic encephalopathy is characterized by confusion, difficulty arousing from sleep, and rigidity of extremities. These symptoms indicate advanced manifestations of hepatic encephalopathy, requiring prompt intervention and monitoring to prevent further neurological deterioration.

3. A client with a history of asthma is prescribed salmeterol (Serevent). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed salmeterol (Serevent) is to use it twice daily for long-term control. Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator that is not intended for acute asthma attacks or as-needed use for wheezing. Choice A is incorrect because salmeterol is not used for acute asthma attacks. Choice B is incorrect as salmeterol is not meant to replace the albuterol inhaler but rather used for long-term control. Choice D is incorrect because salmeterol should not be used as needed; it is a maintenance medication for asthma.

4. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing severe dyspnea. What position should the nurse encourage the patient to assume?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The High Fowler's position is the most appropriate position for a patient with COPD experiencing severe dyspnea. This position helps improve lung expansion and reduce dyspnea by allowing the diaphragm to move more freely and increasing the efficiency of breathing. It also helps reduce the work of breathing and enhances oxygenation in patients with COPD. Supine position (Choice A) may worsen dyspnea by limiting lung expansion. Prone position (Choice B) is not ideal for COPD patients experiencing severe dyspnea as it may restrict breathing. Trendelenburg position (Choice D) is not recommended for COPD patients with dyspnea as it can further compromise breathing.

5. The patient described in the preceding question has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. The serum IgG may remain positive indefinitely and cannot be used to determine failure of eradication; however, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been utilized to indicate treatment success. If available, either the stool antigen or urease breath test is ideal to document treatment failure due to their high sensitivity, specificity, and ease of performance. The relationship between dyspepsia and H. pylori is controversial, but generally, dyspepsia does not typically improve with H. pylori eradication.

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