Nursing Elites

1. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being treated with lactulose. What is an expected outcome of this treatment?

• A. Reduction in blood ammonia levels
• B. Improvement in liver enzyme levels
• C. Decrease in bilirubin levels
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy by reducing blood ammonia levels through promoting its excretion via the intestines. Elevated ammonia levels contribute to the development of encephalopathy symptoms, so by lowering them, the client's neurological status can improve.

2. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed a fentanyl patch. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?

• A. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
• B. Change the patch every 72 hours.
• C. Avoid using additional heating pads over the patch.
• D. Remove the patch before showering.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to provide to a patient prescribed a fentanyl patch is to change the patch every 72 hours. This ensures consistent pain control and prevents complications. It is crucial to rotate the application sites to prevent skin irritation or reactions. Using additional heating pads over the patch should be avoided as it can increase the absorption of the medication, leading to overdose or adverse effects. Removing the patch before showering is not necessary as long as the patch is securely in place.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes 15 mg/kg of Streptomycin for an infant weighing 4 pounds. The drug is diluted in 25 ml of D5W to run over 8 hours. How much Streptomycin will the infant receive?

• A. 9 mg
• B. 18 mg
• C. 27 mg
• D. 36 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dosage, first, convert the weight from pounds to kg (4 lbs / 2.2 ≈ 1.82 kg). Then, multiply by the prescribed mg/kg (15 mg/kg * 1.82 kg ≈ 27.3 mg). However, since the question asks for the closest correct option, the infant will receive approximately 9 mg.

4. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Relieve neuropathic pain
• B. Reduce inflammation
• C. Enhance opioid analgesia
• D. Suppress cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gabapentin is primarily prescribed to relieve neuropathic pain. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the nerves, making it effective in managing conditions such as diabetic neuropathy, postherpetic neuralgia, and other forms of chronic pain originating from nerve damage.

5. A 65-year-old white female with a history of arthritis, congestive heart failure, and osteoporosis complains of odynophagia for two weeks. A barium swallow shows a moderate-sized crater just above the gastroesophageal junction. What is the least likely contributor to this condition?

• A. NSAIDs
• B. Alendronate
• C. Iron sulfate
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the least likely contributor to the condition described is the calcium channel blocker. NSAIDs, alendronate, and iron sulfate have been associated with pill-induced esophagitis, which can present with symptoms like odynophagia and erosions or ulcers on imaging studies. Pill-induced esophagitis is often due to factors like inadequate water intake with the medication, being in a supine position, or underlying motility disorders. Discontinuation of the offending medication typically leads to rapid resolution of esophageal injury. Acid-suppressive therapy may be used to prevent reflux-related damage.

Similar Questions