Nursing Elites

1. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being treated with lactulose. What is an expected outcome of this treatment?

• A. Reduction in blood ammonia levels
• B. Improvement in liver enzyme levels
• C. Decrease in bilirubin levels
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy by reducing blood ammonia levels through promoting its excretion via the intestines. Elevated ammonia levels contribute to the development of encephalopathy symptoms, so by lowering them, the client's neurological status can improve.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril (Prinivil). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Dry cough.
• B. Weight gain.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Hyperglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to irritation and subsequent cough. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can affect adherence to the medication regimen. Weight gain, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

3. A client with liver failure is at an increased risk of bleeding due to the inability to synthesize prothrombin in the liver. What factor most likely contributes to this loss of function?

• A. Alterations in glucose metabolism
• B. Retention of bile salts
• C. Inadequate production of albumin by hepatocytes
• D. Inability of the liver to use vitamin K

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The liver's inability to use vitamin K is the most likely factor contributing to the loss of prothrombin synthesis in liver failure. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of prothrombin, a crucial clotting factor. In liver failure, impaired utilization of vitamin K leads to decreased production of prothrombin, increasing the risk of bleeding in affected individuals.

4. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Administer the injection in your thigh.
• B. Do not expel the air bubble from the syringe before injection.
• C. Massage the injection site after administration.
• D. Alternate the injection site between the arms.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox) is not to expel the air bubble from the syringe before injection. This ensures the full dose is delivered without affecting the medication's efficacy. Expelling the air bubble may lead to a loss of medication, resulting in suboptimal treatment. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to follow this instruction to receive the intended therapeutic effect of enoxaparin.

5. A client with myelogenous leukemia is receiving an autologous bone marrow transplantation (BMT). What is the priority intervention that the nurse should implement when the bone marrow is repopulating?

• A. Administer sargramostim (Leukine, Prokine).
• B. Infuse PRBC and platelet transfusions.
• C. Give parenteral prophylactic antibiotics.
• D. Maintain a protective isolation environment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Maintaining a protective isolation environment is crucial during the repopulation of bone marrow post-transplant to reduce the risk of infections. The client's immune system is compromised during this period, making them highly susceptible to infections. By implementing protective isolation measures, the nurse can help prevent exposure to pathogens, safeguarding the client's health and supporting the success of the transplantation.

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