Nursing Elites

1. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being treated with lactulose. What is an expected outcome of this treatment?

• A. Reduction in blood ammonia levels
• B. Improvement in liver enzyme levels
• C. Decrease in bilirubin levels
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy by reducing blood ammonia levels through promoting its excretion via the intestines. Elevated ammonia levels contribute to the development of encephalopathy symptoms, so by lowering them, the client's neurological status can improve.

2. A 45-year-old obese man arrives at a clinic reporting daytime sleepiness, difficulty falling asleep at night, and snoring. The nurse should recognize the manifestations of what health problem?

• A. Adenoiditis
• B. Chronic tonsillitis
• C. Obstructive sleep apnea
• D. Laryngeal cancer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms described, including daytime sleepiness, difficulty falling asleep at night, and snoring, are classic signs of obstructive sleep apnea. This condition is commonly seen in obese individuals due to the relaxation of throat muscles during sleep, leading to airway obstruction. Adenoiditis and chronic tonsillitis are less likely as they don't typically present with the same symptoms mentioned.

3. The client is receiving intravenous (IV) morphine for pain control. Which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention?

• A. Drowsiness.
• B. Itching.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute indicates severe respiratory depression, a life-threatening side effect of opioid therapy. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring and managing respiratory status are critical in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Drowsiness, itching, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not as immediately life-threatening as severe respiratory depression.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. International normalized ratio (INR)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works by prolonging the clotting time, which is reflected in the aPTT results. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range and not at risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (PT) (Choice A) primarily measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count (Choice B) assesses the number of platelets present in the blood and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. International normalized ratio (INR) (Choice D) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.

5. A highly successful individual presents to the community mental health center complaining of sleeplessness and anxiety over their financial status. What action should the nurse take to assist this client in diminishing their anxiety?

• A. Encourage them to initiate daily rituals.
• B. Reinforce the reality of their financial situation.
• C. Direct them to drink a glass of red wine at bedtime.
• D. Teach them to limit sugar and caffeine intake.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Teaching the individual to limit sugar and caffeine intake is an appropriate intervention to reduce anxiety and improve sleep quality. Sugar and caffeine can exacerbate anxiety symptoms and disrupt sleep patterns. By reducing their intake, the individual may experience a decrease in anxiety levels and better sleep. Encouraging daily rituals, reinforcing financial realities, or suggesting alcohol consumption before bed are not evidence-based strategies for managing anxiety and sleeplessness.

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