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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Headache.
- B. Fever.
- C. Nuchal rigidity.
- D. Seizures.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Seizures in a client with suspected meningitis indicate increased intracranial pressure or other complications requiring immediate intervention. Seizures can lead to further neurological damage and need prompt management to prevent adverse outcomes. Therefore, addressing seizures promptly is crucial in the care of a client with suspected meningitis.
2. The mother of a 9-month-old who was diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) yesterday calls the clinic to inquire if it will be all right to take her infant to the first birthday party of a friend's child the following day. What response should the nurse provide this mother?
- A. The child can be around other children but should wear a mask at all times.
- B. The child will no longer be contagious, no need to take any further precautions.
- C. Make sure there are no children under the age of 6 months around the infected child.
- D. Do not expose other children. RSV is very contagious even without direct oral contact.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is to advise the mother not to expose other children to the infected child. RSV is highly contagious, and transmission can occur even without direct oral contact. It is crucial to prevent the spread of the virus to protect other children from getting infected.
3. A patient with anemia is prescribed ferrous sulfate. What advice should the nurse give regarding the administration of this medication?
- A. Take with dairy products to increase absorption.
- B. Take on an empty stomach for best absorption.
- C. Avoid vitamin C while taking this medication.
- D. Take before bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct advice for the administration of ferrous sulfate is to take it on an empty stomach for best absorption. This enhances the absorption of iron. If gastrointestinal upset occurs, the medication can be taken with food. Taking ferrous sulfate with dairy products is not recommended as calcium can inhibit iron absorption. Taking it before bedtime is also not recommended. Vitamin C can actually help with the absorption of iron and is often recommended to be taken alongside iron supplements to enhance absorption. Therefore, avoiding vitamin C while taking ferrous sulfate is not correct.
4. A client with a history of gout is experiencing an acute attack. Which medication should the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?
- A. Aspirin.
- B. Allopurinol (Zyloprim).
- C. Colchicine.
- D. Probenecid (Benemid).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During an acute gout attack, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe colchicine. Colchicine is commonly used to treat acute gout attacks because it works by reducing inflammation and alleviating pain associated with the condition. It is important to note that aspirin is not recommended for gout treatment and may even exacerbate the symptoms. Allopurinol and probenecid are medications used for long-term management of gout by reducing uric acid levels in the blood, but they are not typically prescribed during an acute attack. Therefore, colchicine is the most appropriate medication for managing an acute gout attack.
5. A 50-year-old man presents with progressive jaundice, dark urine, and pruritus. Imaging reveals a mass in the head of the pancreas. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Pancreatic cancer
- B. Chronic pancreatitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of progressive jaundice, dark urine, and pruritus along with a pancreatic mass, particularly in the head of the pancreas, strongly suggests pancreatic cancer as the most likely diagnosis. These symptoms are classic for obstructive jaundice caused by a mass in the head of the pancreas, making pancreatic cancer the most fitting choice.
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