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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Headache.
- B. Fever.
- C. Nuchal rigidity.
- D. Seizures.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Seizures in a client with suspected meningitis indicate increased intracranial pressure or other complications requiring immediate intervention. Seizures can lead to further neurological damage and need prompt management to prevent adverse outcomes. Therefore, addressing seizures promptly is crucial in the care of a client with suspected meningitis.
2. A client with a history of asthma is prescribed salmeterol (Serevent). Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Use this medication for acute asthma attacks.
- B. Use this medication before using your albuterol inhaler.
- C. Use this medication twice daily for long-term control.
- D. Use this medication as needed for wheezing.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed salmeterol (Serevent) is to use it twice daily for long-term control. Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator that is not intended for acute asthma attacks or as-needed use for wheezing. Choice A is incorrect because salmeterol is not used for acute asthma attacks. Choice B is incorrect as salmeterol is not meant to replace the albuterol inhaler but rather used for long-term control. Choice D is incorrect because salmeterol should not be used as needed; it is a maintenance medication for asthma.
3. A patient with epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin. What is the primary side effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Gingival hyperplasia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia, or overgrowth of the gums, is a common side effect of phenytoin. Patients should maintain good oral hygiene to minimize this effect.
4. Your patient has an order to receive Levothyroxine Sodium 75 mcg daily IV. You have a vial containing 100 mcg available from the pharmacy. According to the package insert, 5 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride is needed to reconstitute. You add the appropriate amount of sodium chloride to the vial. How many mcg of medication are in 1 mL of the vial?
- A. 20 mcg
- B. 15 mcg
- C. 25 mcg
- D. 30 mcg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of Levothyroxine Sodium in the vial is 100 mcg in 5 mL, which equals 20 mcg/mL. Therefore, in 1 mL of the vial, there are 20 mcg of medication.
5. A client with a history of gout is experiencing an acute attack. Which medication should the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?
- A. Aspirin.
- B. Allopurinol (Zyloprim).
- C. Colchicine.
- D. Probenecid (Benemid).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During an acute gout attack, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe colchicine. Colchicine is commonly used to treat acute gout attacks because it works by reducing inflammation and alleviating pain associated with the condition. It is important to note that aspirin is not recommended for gout treatment and may even exacerbate the symptoms. Allopurinol and probenecid are medications used for long-term management of gout by reducing uric acid levels in the blood, but they are not typically prescribed during an acute attack. Therefore, colchicine is the most appropriate medication for managing an acute gout attack.
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