Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Headache.
• B. Fever.
• C. Nuchal rigidity.
• D. Seizures.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Seizures in a client with suspected meningitis indicate increased intracranial pressure or other complications requiring immediate intervention. Seizures can lead to further neurological damage and need prompt management to prevent adverse outcomes. Therefore, addressing seizures promptly is crucial in the care of a client with suspected meningitis.

2. Why is a low-protein diet recommended for a client with hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Increased ammonia levels
• D. Electrolyte imbalance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A low-protein diet is recommended for clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia levels. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, can accumulate in the blood due to impaired liver function. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to worsening hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by cognitive and neurological disturbances. Therefore, by limiting protein intake, the production of ammonia is reduced, thereby helping to manage hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hepatic encephalopathy is not primarily related to hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, or electrolyte imbalance. The focus is on reducing ammonia levels to improve the condition.

3. A 50-year-old man presents with progressive jaundice, dark urine, and pruritus. Imaging reveals a mass in the head of the pancreas. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Pancreatic cancer
• B. Chronic pancreatitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of progressive jaundice, dark urine, and pruritus along with a pancreatic mass, particularly in the head of the pancreas, strongly suggests pancreatic cancer as the most likely diagnosis. These symptoms are classic for obstructive jaundice caused by a mass in the head of the pancreas, making pancreatic cancer the most fitting choice.

4. An outcome for treatment of peripheral vascular disease is, 'The client will have decreased venous congestion.' What client behavior would indicate to the nurse that this outcome has been met?

• A. Avoids prolonged sitting or standing.
• B. Avoids trauma and irritation to skin.
• C. Wears protective shoes.
• D. Quits smoking.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoids prolonged sitting or standing.' In clients with peripheral vascular disease, decreased venous congestion is a desired outcome. Avoiding prolonged sitting or standing helps improve venous return and reduces congestion in the lower extremities, contributing to the achievement of this treatment goal.

5. What is the primary cause of jaundice in a client with liver cirrhosis?

• A. Decreased bile production
• B. Increased bilirubin levels
• C. Hepatic inflammation
• D. Portal hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Jaundice in a client with liver cirrhosis is primarily caused by increased bilirubin levels. In liver cirrhosis, impaired liver function leads to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, resulting in jaundice. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment produced from the breakdown of red blood cells, and its elevation is a common manifestation of liver dysfunction. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While decreased bile production can contribute to jaundice, in liver cirrhosis, the key factor is the buildup of bilirubin due to liver dysfunction, not a decrease in bile production. Hepatic inflammation and portal hypertension are associated with liver cirrhosis but are not the primary causes of jaundice in this context.

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