Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been receiving treatment for depression with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) reports experiencing decreased libido. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Decreased libido is a common side effect of SSRIs and may improve over time.
• B. I will notify your healthcare provider to discuss possible medication changes.
• C. You should take your medication with food to reduce side effects.
• D. Increase your daily exercise to help manage this side effect.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client reports experiencing decreased libido while taking SSRIs, it is important for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider to discuss potential medication adjustments. This side effect can significantly impact a client's quality of life, and addressing it promptly by involving the healthcare provider is crucial in providing holistic care. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the issue of decreased libido caused by SSRIs. Simply waiting for improvement over time, altering the administration of medication with food, or increasing exercise are not appropriate strategies for managing this specific side effect.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with severe dehydration. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute.
• B. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg.
• C. Urine output of 20 ml/hour.
• D. Dry mucous membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A urine output of 20 ml/hour indicates severe dehydration and impaired renal function. This finding suggests a critical state where the kidneys are conserving water, leading to reduced urine output. Immediate intervention is required to restore fluid balance and prevent further complications associated with severe dehydration. Choice A, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, may indicate dehydration but is not as severe as the critically low urine output. Choice B, a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, can be seen in dehydration but is not as concerning as the extremely low urine output. Choice D, dry mucous membranes, is a common sign of dehydration but does not require immediate intervention compared to the severely reduced urine output.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Platelet count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
• D. Fibrinogen level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. These tests help assess the clotting time and the desired anticoagulant effect of the medication. Monitoring PT and INR levels is crucial to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications associated with warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice A) measures the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific for monitoring warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice C) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) assesses the amount of fibrinogen in the blood and is not a specific test for monitoring warfarin therapy.

4. The patient has a calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL. Which nursing action should the nurse include on the care plan?

• A. Maintain the patient on bed rest.
• B. Auscultate lung sounds every 4 hours.
• C. Monitor for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs.
• D. Encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include on the care plan for a patient with a calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL is to encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day. This is essential to decrease the risk for renal calculi associated with hypercalcemia. While bed rest is not necessary, ambulation is encouraged to help decrease the loss of calcium from the bone. Monitoring for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs is more relevant when hypocalcemia is suspected. Auscultating lung sounds every shift is a routine assessment, not required every 4 hours unless there is a specific respiratory concern.

5. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic with a foot ulcer. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client to promote healing of the ulcer?

• A. Apply a heating pad to the ulcer twice daily.
• B. Wear tight-fitting shoes to protect the ulcer.
• C. Keep the ulcer clean and dry.
• D. Limit walking to reduce pressure on the ulcer.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Keep the ulcer clean and dry." For clients with diabetes mellitus, it is crucial to maintain foot ulcers clean and dry to prevent infection and promote healing. Moist environments can lead to bacterial growth and delay healing. Applying a heating pad (Choice A) can increase the risk of burns and further damage the ulcer. Wearing tight-fitting shoes (Choice B) can cause friction and pressure on the ulcer, hindering the healing process. Limiting walking (Choice D) excessively can affect circulation and delay healing. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to keep the ulcer clean and dry for optimal wound care management.

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