a client who has been receiving treatment for depression with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor ssri reports experiencing decreased libido what
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019

1. A client who has been receiving treatment for depression with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) reports experiencing decreased libido. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client reports experiencing decreased libido while taking SSRIs, it is important for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider to discuss potential medication adjustments. This side effect can significantly impact a client's quality of life, and addressing it promptly by involving the healthcare provider is crucial in providing holistic care. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the issue of decreased libido caused by SSRIs. Simply waiting for improvement over time, altering the administration of medication with food, or increasing exercise are not appropriate strategies for managing this specific side effect.

2. A patient with depression is prescribed fluoxetine. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient with depression is prescribed fluoxetine, the nurse should be vigilant for the potential side effect of increased risk of suicidal thoughts. Fluoxetine, like other antidepressants, may elevate the risk of suicidal thoughts, particularly during the initial phases of treatment. Monitoring the patient for any indications of heightened depression or suicidal ideation is crucial to ensure appropriate interventions are implemented promptly.

3. A 45-year-old woman with occasional indigestion has had episodes of chest pain and dysphagia to both solids and liquids. An upper GI series and EGD fail to disclose any structural abnormalities. What is the most appropriate initial therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of chest pain and dysphagia suggest esophageal spasm, often related to underlying gastroesophageal reflux. The initial therapy should focus on acid suppression. Proton pump inhibitors are the preferred choice to reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. If proton pump inhibitors are ineffective, other options like smooth muscle relaxants or antidepressants may be considered. A Heller myotomy is not indicated in this case as the patient does not have achalasia.

4. After performing a paracentesis on a client with ascites, 3 liters of fluid are removed. Which assessment parameter is most critical for the nurse to monitor following the procedure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following a paracentesis where a significant amount of fluid is removed, it is crucial to monitor the client's vital signs. This helps in detecting any signs of hypovolemia, such as changes in blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate, which could indicate complications post-procedure. Monitoring the vital signs allows for prompt intervention if there are any deviations from the baseline values.

5. When should the charge nurse intervene based on the observed behavior?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The hospital transporter reading a client's history and physical without a legitimate need violates patient confidentiality. This behavior requires immediate intervention to protect the client's privacy and confidentiality rights.

Similar Questions

A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding. She has a history of similar episodes in the past. What is the most likely diagnosis?
What is the most likely diagnosis in a 30-year-old woman with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with elevated white blood cell count and bilirubin levels?
A client diagnosed with dementia is disoriented, wandering, has a decreased appetite, and is having trouble sleeping. What is the priority nursing problem for this client?
A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Access More Features

ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses