Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which diagnostic test is most likely to be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?

• A. Echocardiogram
• B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Chest X-ray
• D. Complete blood count (CBC)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the primary diagnostic tool used to confirm a myocardial infarction. An ECG provides immediate information on cardiac function and can show characteristic changes indicative of a myocardial infarction, such as ST-segment elevation or depression. An echocardiogram (Choice A) is useful for assessing heart structure and function but is not typically used as the primary test for confirming an acute myocardial infarction. Chest X-ray (Choice C) may show certain changes in heart size or pulmonary congestion but is not the primary diagnostic test for MI. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) (Choice D) provides information about the cellular components of blood and is not specific to confirming a myocardial infarction.

2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Monitor for muscle weakness.
• C. Eat foods high in potassium.
• D. Expect weight gain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement that the nurse should include in the teaching for a client prescribed furosemide is to eat foods high in potassium. Furosemide can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urine output. Consuming potassium-rich foods like bananas, oranges, spinach, and potatoes can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning, monitoring for muscle weakness, and expecting weight gain are not directly related to the potential side effects or necessary dietary adjustments when taking furosemide.

3. The client is being ambulated due to activity intolerance caused by bacterial endocarditis. How can the nurse determine that the client is best tolerating ambulation?

• A. Mild dyspnea after walking 10 feet
• B. Minimal chest pain rated 1 on a 1-to-10 pain scale
• C. Pulse rate that increases from 68 to 94 beats per minute
• D. Blood pressure that increases from 114/82 to 118/86 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A slight increase in blood pressure without significant symptoms indicates that the client is tolerating the activity. In this scenario, a mild increase in blood pressure without other symptoms is a positive sign of tolerance to ambulation despite the underlying condition of bacterial endocarditis. Choices A, B, and C are not the best indicators of tolerance to ambulation in this case. Mild dyspnea after walking a short distance, minimal chest pain, and an increase in pulse rate are common signs that the activity might not be well-tolerated by the client with a history of bacterial endocarditis.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium carbonate. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Increased urination
• B. Tremors
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tremors. Tremors are a sign of lithium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Increased urination is a common side effect of lithium but not an urgent concern requiring immediate reporting. Weight gain is also a common side effect of lithium but does not indicate toxicity. Blurred vision is not typically associated with lithium toxicity; therefore, it is not the priority finding to report.

5. A client with a history of angina pectoris complains of substernal chest pain. The nurse checks the client's blood pressure and administers nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingually. Five minutes later, the client is still experiencing chest pain. What is the next appropriate nursing action?

• A. Administer another dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Have the client lie down and stay calm.
• D. Give the client aspirin 325 mg to chew.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If chest pain persists after the first dose of nitroglycerin, it is appropriate to administer a second dose while continuing to monitor the client's response. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator commonly used to relieve angina symptoms by dilating blood vessels and increasing blood flow to the heart. Reassessing the client's response and providing a second dose may be necessary to achieve adequate pain relief and improve blood flow to the heart. Administering another dose of nitroglycerin is the next appropriate step in managing angina symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice B) may be necessary if the client's condition worsens or if there are other concerning symptoms. Having the client lie down and stay calm (Choice C) is generally recommended but addressing the ongoing chest pain takes precedence. Giving the client aspirin 325 mg to chew (Choice D) is beneficial for suspected myocardial infarction but is not the immediate action indicated for persistent angina symptoms.

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