ATI LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which diagnostic test is most likely to be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?
- A. Echocardiogram
- B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- C. Chest X-ray
- D. Complete blood count (CBC)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the primary diagnostic tool used to confirm a myocardial infarction. An ECG provides immediate information on cardiac function and can show characteristic changes indicative of a myocardial infarction, such as ST-segment elevation or depression. An echocardiogram (Choice A) is useful for assessing heart structure and function but is not typically used as the primary test for confirming an acute myocardial infarction. Chest X-ray (Choice C) may show certain changes in heart size or pulmonary congestion but is not the primary diagnostic test for MI. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) (Choice D) provides information about the cellular components of blood and is not specific to confirming a myocardial infarction.
2. The healthcare provider is reinforcing teaching for a client who is starting statin therapy. Which dietary advice should the healthcare provider give?
- A. Eat more whole grains.
- B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- C. Avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice.
- D. Increase intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice. Grapefruit and grapefruit juice can interfere with the metabolism of statins, leading to an increased risk of adverse effects. It is crucial for clients on statin therapy to avoid grapefruit products to ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly impact the metabolism or effectiveness of statin therapy.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking isoniazid to treat tuberculosis. The healthcare professional should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Hearing loss
- D. Jaundice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct. Jaundice is a serious adverse effect of isoniazid due to liver damage. It is essential to monitor for signs of liver toxicity, such as jaundice, while the client is on this medication. Diarrhea is a common side effect of isoniazid, but it is not as serious as liver damage. Blurred vision and hearing loss are not typically associated with isoniazid use.
4. The client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) for heart failure. Which symptom would indicate digoxin toxicity?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Yellow or blurred vision
- C. Increased urination
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Yellow or blurred vision can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. These visual disturbances are concerning as they indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Recognizing this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications. Increased appetite, increased urination, and diarrhea are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, option B is the correct choice in this scenario.
5. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is worsening?
- A. Clear lung sounds
- B. Increased peripheral pulses
- C. Bibasilar crackles
- D. Improved activity tolerance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bibasilar crackles are abnormal lung sounds that indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a sign that left-sided heart failure is worsening. This finding suggests that the client's condition is deteriorating and requires prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Clear lung sounds (Choice A) are normal and would not indicate worsening heart failure. Increased peripheral pulses (Choice B) may be seen in conditions like anxiety or exercise, but not specifically in worsening left-sided heart failure. Improved activity tolerance (Choice D) would be a positive sign, not an indicator of worsening heart failure.
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