Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which diagnostic test is most likely to be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?

• A. Echocardiogram
• B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Chest X-ray
• D. Complete blood count (CBC)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the primary diagnostic tool used to confirm a myocardial infarction. An ECG provides immediate information on cardiac function and can show characteristic changes indicative of a myocardial infarction, such as ST-segment elevation or depression. An echocardiogram (Choice A) is useful for assessing heart structure and function but is not typically used as the primary test for confirming an acute myocardial infarction. Chest X-ray (Choice C) may show certain changes in heart size or pulmonary congestion but is not the primary diagnostic test for MI. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) (Choice D) provides information about the cellular components of blood and is not specific to confirming a myocardial infarction.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with a spacer. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce to ensure correct use?

• A. Inhale deeply and slowly after activating the MDI.
• B. Hold the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication.
• C. Rinse the mouth immediately after using the MDI.
• D. Exhale fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inhaling deeply and slowly after activating the MDI is the correct instruction to ensure effective delivery of the medication to the lungs. This technique helps the medication reach the lower airways where it can be most beneficial in managing COPD symptoms. Inhaling too quickly or not deeply enough may result in improper drug delivery and reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Holding the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication (Choice B) may not be necessary and could cause discomfort without additional benefits. Rinsing the mouth immediately after using the MDI (Choice C) is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Exhaling fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth (Choice D) is not ideal as it may result in inadequate medication delivery to the lungs.

3. The client is reinforcing instructions for a low-sodium diet. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid adding salt to my food while cooking.
• B. I will use salt substitutes instead of regular salt.
• C. I can eat as much processed food as I like since it's usually low in sodium.
• D. I will read food labels to check for sodium content.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Processed foods often contain high amounts of sodium, so they should be limited or avoided on a low-sodium diet. Choosing processed foods can lead to increased sodium intake, counteracting the purpose of following a low-sodium diet. Option A shows an understanding of avoiding added salt, Option B suggests using alternatives to regular salt, and Option D indicates a willingness to check food labels for sodium content, all of which are appropriate for a low-sodium diet. Therefore, the client's statement about eating processed foods freely is incorrect and requires further teaching.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium. This loss of potassium can lead to hypokalemia, which can be a potential side effect of furosemide administration. Hypokalemia can result in cardiac dysrhythmias and other complications, especially in clients with heart failure who may already have compromised cardiac function. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hypokalemia, such as muscle weakness, cardiac irregularities, and fatigue, is essential when administering furosemide. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect because furosemide is actually used to treat hypertension by reducing excess fluid in the body. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Choice D, hypoglycemia, is unrelated to the mechanism of action of furosemide and is not a common side effect associated with its administration.

5. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin is being educated by a healthcare professional about monitoring for adverse effects. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. 'I should use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth.'
• B. 'I will double my dose if I miss one.'
• C. 'I should increase my intake of leafy green vegetables.'
• D. 'I will contact my doctor if I notice any unusual bleeding or bruising.'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I will contact my doctor if I notice any unusual bleeding or bruising.' This statement indicates a good understanding of the teaching regarding warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that increases the risk of bleeding. Contacting the doctor if unusual bleeding or bruising is noticed is essential as it can help prevent serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Using a soft toothbrush is generally recommended for oral hygiene but is not directly related to monitoring for adverse effects of warfarin. Doubling the dose of warfarin if a dose is missed is dangerous and can increase the risk of bleeding. Increasing the intake of leafy green vegetables can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness as they contain vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin's anticoagulant effects.

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