Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Avoid using a soft toothbrush.
• B. Report any signs of bleeding.
• C. Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables.
• D. Take the medication with food.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any signs of bleeding when taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that increases the risk of bleeding, so it is essential to monitor for any signs of abnormal bleeding and report them promptly for appropriate management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Instructing the client to avoid using a soft toothbrush is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Increasing the intake of leafy green vegetables is not recommended as they contain vitamin K, which can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects. Taking warfarin with food can be inconsistent and may not result in optimal absorption.

2. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

3. When teaching a client with a new prescription for spironolactone, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Monitor for signs of hyperkalemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for signs of hyperkalemia when taking spironolactone since it is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Advising the client to increase potassium-rich foods (Choice A) would be incorrect as it can further elevate potassium levels, which could lead to hyperkalemia. Avoiding grapefruit juice (Choice B) is not directly related to spironolactone use. Though taking the medication with food (Choice C) can help reduce gastrointestinal upset, it is not the most critical instruction when initiating spironolactone therapy.

4. A client with myocardial infarction (MI) has been transferred from the coronary care unit (CCU) to the general medical unit with cardiac monitoring via telemetry. The nurse assisting in caring for the client expects to note which type of activity prescribed?

• A. Strict bed rest for 24 hours
• B. Bathroom privileges and self-care activities
• C. Unrestricted activities because the client is monitored
• D. Unsupervised hallway ambulation with distances less than 200 feet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After being transferred from the CCU to the general medical unit with cardiac monitoring, the client with MI is typically prescribed bathroom privileges and self-care activities. This approach allows for gradual recovery and mobility while still being closely monitored, promoting the client's overall well-being and independence. Choice A, strict bed rest for 24 hours, is too restrictive and not recommended for MI patients as it can lead to complications like deep vein thrombosis. Choice C, unrestricted activities, is also not appropriate as MI patients usually require monitoring and gradual re-introduction to activities. Choice D, unsupervised hallway ambulation with distances less than 200 feet, may be too strenuous for a client who just got transferred from the CCU and needs a more gradual approach to activity.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a decline in the client's condition and the need for adjustments in their medication regimen. Therefore, the healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the client's Parkinson's disease or the medication levodopa/carbidopa. Dry mouth is a common side effect of many medications, including anticholinergics, but not specifically levodopa/carbidopa. Urinary retention and dizziness are also not typically associated with levodopa/carbidopa use for Parkinson's disease.

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