Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.

2. A nurse is performing a focused assessment on a client who has a history of COPD and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Flaring of the nostrils
• B. Normal respiratory rate
• C. Clear lung sounds
• D. Decreased work of breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flaring of the nostrils indicates increased respiratory effort, common in clients with dyspnea due to COPD. In COPD, the airways are narrowed, causing difficulty in breathing, leading to increased work of breathing. Normal respiratory rate and clear lung sounds are less likely findings in a client with COPD experiencing dyspnea. Decreased work of breathing is not expected in this situation as COPD typically results in increased work of breathing.

3. A nurse is checking laboratory results for a client. Which of the following laboratory findings indicates hypervolemia?

• A. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L
• B. Urine specific gravity 1.001
• C. Serum calcium 10 mg/dL
• D. Urine pH 6

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity of 1.001 is low and indicates dilute urine, which is a sign of fluid overload (hypervolemia). Choice A, serum sodium 138 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not indicate hypervolemia. Choice C, serum calcium 10 mg/dL, is not typically used to diagnose hypervolemia. Choice D, urine pH 6, is also not a specific indicator of hypervolemia.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled for electromyography (EMG). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. “You will receive a fixed dose of radioisotope 2 hours before the procedure.”
• B. “Momentary flushing may occur at the beginning of the procedure.”
• C. “You should inform your provider if you are claustrophobic.”
• D. “You should expect insertion of small needle electrodes into the muscles.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electromyography (EMG) procedure, small needle electrodes are inserted into the muscles to identify muscle weakness and evaluate local nerve responses. This information is crucial for the client to know beforehand. Choice A is incorrect because radioisotopes are not used in EMG procedures. Choice B is incorrect because flushing is not a common occurrence during EMG. Choice C is incorrect because claustrophobia is more relevant to MRI or CT scans, not EMG procedures.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a prescription for duloxetine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Serum electrolytes
• C. Blood glucose
• D. Potassium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Liver function. Duloxetine can affect liver function, making it crucial for the nurse to monitor liver function tests. Monitoring serum electrolytes (choice B), blood glucose (choice C), or potassium levels (choice D) is not directly associated with duloxetine use and would not be the priority in this case.

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