Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Serum potassium levels
• B. Liver function
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Calcium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor serum potassium levels. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide primarily affects potassium excretion rather than liver function, blood glucose levels, or calcium levels.

3. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which laboratory value would indicate the need for hemodialysis?

• A. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 14 mL/min
• B. BUN 16 mg/dL
• C. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
• D. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A GFR of 14 mL/min indicates significant kidney damage and a severe decrease in kidney function. This level of GFR typically indicates the need for hemodialysis to help the kidneys perform their function adequately. BUN, serum magnesium, and serum phosphorus levels are important in assessing kidney function and managing chronic kidney disease but do not specifically indicate the need for hemodialysis. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare professional monitor for?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In heart failure, the accumulation of fluid can lead to peripheral edema, which is swelling in the extremities. This is a common sign that healthcare professionals should monitor for. While tachycardia (increased heart rate), bradycardia (decreased heart rate), and hypotension (low blood pressure) can also occur in heart failure, they are not the primary signs typically associated with this condition. Therefore, peripheral edema is the most relevant sign to monitor in this case.

5. A client is found on the floor of their room experiencing a seizure. Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse?

• A. Place the client on their side with their head forward
• B. Call for help
• C. Protect the client's head
• D. Restrain the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client on their side with their head forward. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration, which is crucial in managing the client's safety during a seizure. Calling for help is important but ensuring the client's immediate safety by positioning them correctly takes precedence. Protecting the client's head can be done concurrently while positioning the client. Restraint is not appropriate during a seizure as it can lead to injuries and complications.

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