a nurse is caring for a client in preterm labor who is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous iv infusion which of the following client findings in
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A nurse is caring for a client in preterm labor who is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which of the following client findings indicates medication toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A urine output of 20 mL per hour is low and indicates renal insufficiency, a sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity. The medication is excreted by the kidneys, so toxicity can occur if renal function declines. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL is within normal range and not indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity. A systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg is elevated but not specifically related to magnesium sulfate toxicity. A BUN level of 20 mg/dL is also within normal limits and not a sign of medication toxicity.

2. A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has a new prescription for sertraline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I may experience difficulty sleeping while taking this medication.' Sertraline can cause insomnia, especially when first starting the medication, so the client should be aware of this potential side effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because feeling better immediately, increased urination, and decreasing sodium intake are not commonly associated side effects of sertraline.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant for the fourth time. The client delivered two full-term newborns and had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks of gestation. The nurse should document the client's obstetrical history as which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies (4), and Para refers to the number of viable births (2 full-term births). The client has had 4 pregnancies (Gravida 4) and delivered 2 full-term newborns (Para 2). The spontaneous abortion does not count as a viable birth, so the correct documentation is Gravida 4, Para 2. Choice A is incorrect because it does not account for the full obstetrical history. Choice B is incorrect as the client has not had 3 viable births. Choice C is incorrect as it does not reflect the number of viable births correctly.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates oxygen toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased respiratory rate. In clients with COPD, especially when receiving oxygen therapy, a decreased respiratory rate is indicative of oxygen toxicity. This occurs because their respiratory drive is often dependent on low oxygen levels. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not necessarily indicate oxygen toxicity. Wheezing is more commonly associated with airway narrowing or constriction, while peripheral cyanosis is a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the peripheral tissues, not oxygen toxicity.

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