a client at 40 weeks gestation presents to the obstetrical floor and indicates that the amniotic membranes ruptured spontaneously at home she is in ac
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Maternity Test Bank

1. At 40-weeks gestation, a client presents to the obstetrical floor with spontaneous rupture of amniotic membranes at home, in active labor, and feeling the urge to push. What information should the nurse prioritize obtaining?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the color and consistency of amniotic fluid is crucial as it can indicate the presence of meconium, which suggests potential fetal distress. This information guides the need for further assessments and interventions to ensure the well-being of the mother and fetus. Estimating the amount of fluid is not as critical as determining the color and consistency to identify fetal distress. While noting any odor is important, it is secondary to assessing the fluid itself. Knowing the time of membrane rupture is helpful but not as crucial as evaluating the characteristics of the amniotic fluid.

2. The LPN/LVN should explain to a 30-year-old gravida client that alpha fetoprotein testing is recommended for which purpose?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Screen for neural tube defects. Alpha fetoprotein testing is primarily used to screen for neural tube defects and other fetal abnormalities. It is not used to detect cardiovascular disorders, monitor placental functioning, or assess for maternal pre-eclampsia.

3. Albumin 25% IV is prescribed for a child with nephrotic syndrome. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is having the desired effect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduction of edema. Albumin helps reduce edema by increasing oncotic pressure, drawing fluid back into the blood vessels. In nephrotic syndrome, there is an abnormal loss of protein in the urine, leading to decreased oncotic pressure and fluid shifting into the interstitial spaces, causing edema. Administering albumin helps restore the oncotic pressure, reducing edema, which is a desirable effect of the medication.

4. The nurse is caring for a female client, a primigravida with preeclampsia. Findings include +2 proteinuria, BP 172/112 mmHg, facial and hand swelling, complaints of blurry vision and a severe frontal headache. Which medication should the nurse anticipate for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, including hypertension, proteinuria, facial and hand swelling, visual disturbances, and a severe headache. The medication of choice for preventing seizures in preeclampsia is magnesium sulfate. This drug helps to prevent and control seizures in clients with preeclampsia, making it the most appropriate option for this client. Clonidine hydrochloride (Choice A) is an antihypertensive medication used for managing hypertension but is not the first-line treatment for preeclampsia. Carbamazepine (Choice B) is an anticonvulsant used for seizure disorders like epilepsy and is not indicated for preeclampsia. Furosemide (Choice C) is a diuretic used to manage fluid retention but is not the drug of choice for treating preeclampsia.

5. When teaching a gravid client how to perform kick (fetal movement) counts, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When teaching a gravid client about kick (fetal movement) counts, the nurse should instruct them that if 10 kicks are not felt within one hour, they should drink orange juice and continue counting for another hour. This instruction is crucial as a drop in fetal movements could indicate potential issues with fetal well-being, and taking action such as rechecking after food intake is recommended to monitor the situation closely.

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