Nursing Elites

1. A 6 year old who has asthma is demonstrating a prolonged expiratory phase and wheezing and has a 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR). Based on these findings, what actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.
• B. Encourage the child to cough and deep breath.
• C. Report findings to the health care provider.
• D. Determine what triggers precipitated this attack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator will help open the airways and improve breathing.

2. A 7-year-old is admitted to the hospital with persistent vomiting, and a nasogastric tube attached to low intermittent suction is applied. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Gastric output of 100 mL in the last 8 hours.
• B. Shift intake of 640 mL IV fluids plus 30 mL PO ice chips.
• C. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L.
• D. Serum pH of 7.45.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is significantly low and indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. The other findings are not as critical in this situation. Gastric output of 100 mL in the last 8 hours may be expected in a patient with persistent vomiting. The shift intake of IV fluids and ice chips indicates fluid replacement, which is important but not as urgent as correcting electrolyte imbalances. A serum pH of 7.45 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

3. A child who is admitted to the hospital with anemia is anxious, fearful, and hyperventilating. The nurse anticipates the child developing which acid-base imbalance?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Respiratory acidosis
• C. Respiratory alkalosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the child is hyperventilating, which leads to excessive loss of carbon dioxide. This loss of carbon dioxide causes respiratory alkalosis due to a decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood. Therefore, the correct answer is respiratory alkalosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a decrease in pH and bicarbonate levels due to conditions like kidney disease. Respiratory acidosis is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, leading to an increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide. Metabolic alkalosis results from a loss of acid or an increase in bicarbonate levels.

4. While assessing the vital signs of a 10-year-old who underwent a tonsillectomy this morning, the nurse observes the child swallowing every 2-3 minutes. Which assessment should the nurse implement?

• A. Inspect the posterior oropharynx
• B. Assess for teeth clenching or grinding
• C. Touch the tonsillar pillars to stimulate the gag reflex
• D. Ask the child to speak to evaluate a change in voice tone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Frequent swallowing post-tonsillectomy may indicate bleeding. Inspecting the posterior oropharynx is essential to assess for any signs of bleeding, such as fresh blood or clots, which may necessitate immediate intervention. Option B is incorrect as teeth clenching or grinding is not directly related to the observation of frequent swallowing in this scenario. Option C is incorrect because stimulating the gag reflex is not necessary at this point and may be uncomfortable for the child. Option D is incorrect as evaluating a change in voice tone is not relevant to the situation of observing frequent swallowing.

5. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Increase the child’s insulin dose
• B. Review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique
• C. Discuss the possibility of switching to oral hypoglycemics
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in three months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.

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