a patient with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate what is an important teaching point for the nurse to provide
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1. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is an important teaching point for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching point for a patient prescribed methotrexate is to take folic acid supplements as prescribed. Methotrexate can lead to a folate deficiency, which is why supplementing with folic acid is essential to reduce the risk of side effects such as mouth sores, nausea, and liver problems.

2. For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing montelukast?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Montelukast, a leukotriene receptor antagonist, is primarily prescribed to prevent asthma attacks. It works by reducing inflammation and bronchoconstriction in the airways, thereby helping to control asthma symptoms and prevent exacerbations.

3. A 35-year-old man presents with difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and regurgitation of undigested food. A barium swallow shows a 'bird beak' appearance of the lower esophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The 'bird beak' appearance on a barium swallow is characteristic of achalasia, a condition where the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax properly. This leads to difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and regurgitation of undigested food, which are hallmark symptoms of achalasia.

4. A client with a history of asthma is prescribed salmeterol (Serevent). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed salmeterol (Serevent) is to use it twice daily for long-term control. Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator that is not intended for acute asthma attacks or as-needed use for wheezing. Choice A is incorrect because salmeterol is not used for acute asthma attacks. Choice B is incorrect as salmeterol is not meant to replace the albuterol inhaler but rather used for long-term control. Choice D is incorrect because salmeterol should not be used as needed; it is a maintenance medication for asthma.

5. A 35-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. She has a history of recurrent mouth ulcers and a perianal fistula. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including recurrent mouth ulcers, perianal fistula, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss strongly suggests Crohn's disease. These extra-intestinal manifestations are characteristic of Crohn's disease, a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Ulcerative colitis primarily involves the colon, while irritable bowel syndrome is a functional disorder without the inflammatory component seen in Crohn's disease. Diverticulitis typically presents with localized left lower quadrant pain and is less likely to cause mouth ulcers and perianal fistulas.

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