a 35 year old man presents with fatigue weight loss and hyperpigmentation of the skin laboratory tests reveal hyponatremia hyperkalemia and low cortis
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1. A 35-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Laboratory tests reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 35-year-old man with fatigue, weight loss, hyperpigmentation of the skin, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels is classic for Addison's disease. These findings are consistent with primary adrenal insufficiency, where the adrenal glands fail to produce adequate cortisol. In Addison's disease, the adrenal cortex is damaged, leading to decreased cortisol production and elevated levels of ACTH. This results in symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation due to increased ACTH production stimulating melanocytes. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are common electrolyte abnormalities seen in Addison's disease due to aldosterone deficiency. Therefore, the correct diagnosis in this case is Addison's disease.

2. Why is a low-protein diet recommended for a patient with renal failure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-protein diet is crucial for patients with renal failure to reduce the generation of nitrogenous waste products like urea and creatinine, which the compromised kidneys struggle to eliminate effectively. By limiting protein intake, the production of these waste products is decreased, lessening the burden on the kidneys and helping to manage the progression of renal failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a low-protein diet primarily aims to reduce the workload on the kidneys by decreasing the production of nitrogenous waste, not to prevent fluid overload, maintain electrolyte balance, or prevent hyperglycemia.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client on warfarin therapy, especially with a history of DVT, is to use a soft-bristled toothbrush. This is crucial to prevent gum bleeding, which is a risk due to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Green leafy vegetables are rich in vitamin K, which can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness, so they should be consumed consistently to maintain a balance. Aspirin is not recommended for headaches in clients on warfarin due to the increased risk of bleeding. Limiting fluid intake is not a standard instruction for clients on warfarin therapy.

4. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gabapentin is primarily prescribed to relieve neuropathic pain. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the nerves, making it effective in managing conditions such as diabetic neuropathy, postherpetic neuralgia, and other forms of chronic pain originating from nerve damage.

5. The client has just been diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperpigmentation and hypotension are classic clinical manifestations of Addison's disease due to decreased cortisol production. Hyperpigmentation occurs due to elevated levels of ACTH, leading to increased melanin synthesis. Hypotension results from aldosterone deficiency, causing sodium loss and volume depletion.

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